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Ellsworth Huntington Quiz

Ellsworth Huntington Quiz Questions

English: Picture taken in 1920 and publicly av...

Ellsworth Huntington. Picture taken in 1920 and publicly available online at Yale’s Manuscripts and Archives. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

1. When was Ellsworth Huntington born?
a) 5 February 1884
b) 2 April 1882
c) 16 September 1876
d) 14 December 1864

2. Where was Ellsworth Huntington born?
a) Galesburg
b) Chicago
c) Springfield
d) Ankara

3. At which college was Ellsworth Huntington instructor?
a) Christ Church College
b) Euphrates College
c) Trinity College
d) Bright College

4. Where did Ellsworth Huntington explore the canyons of the Euphrates?
a) Arabia
b) Egypt
c) Libya
d) Turkey

5. When did Ellsworth Huntington write The Pulse of Asia?
a) 1907
b) 1909
c) 1912
d) 1914

6. When did Ellsworth Huntington teach at Yale University?
a) 1898-1904
b) 1918-1924
c) 1907-1917
d) 1924-1936

7. When did Ellsworth Huntington publish Palestine and its Transformation?
a) 1948
b) 1936
c) 1925
d) 1911

8. Which book of Ellsworth Huntington was published in 1915?
a) The Human Habitat
b) Civilization and Climate
c) Mainsprings of Civilization
d) Clash of Civilizations

9. When did Ellsworth Huntington die?
a) 25 January 1959
b) 11 June 1958
c) 16 July 1953
d) 17 October 1947

10. Where did Ellsworth Huntington die?
a) Cairo
b) New Haven
c) Damascus
d) Beirut

Ellsworth Huntington Quiz Questions and Answers

Cover of "Civilization and Climate"

Cover of Civilization and Climate

1. When was Ellsworth Huntington born?
c) 16 September 1876

2. Where was Ellsworth Huntington born?
a) Galesburg

3. At which college was Ellsworth Huntington instructor?
b) Euphrates College

4. Where did Ellsworth Huntington explore the canyons of the Euphrates?
d) Turkey

5. When did Ellsworth Huntington write The Pulse of Asia?
a) 1907

6. When did Ellsworth Huntington teach at Yale University?
c) 1907-1917

7. When did Ellsworth Huntington publish Palestine and its Transformation?
d) 1911

8. Which book of Ellsworth Huntington was published in 1915?
b) Civilization and Climate

9. When did Ellsworth Huntington die?
d) 17 October 1947

10. Where did Ellsworth Huntington die?
b) New Haven

x (x)

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Environmental Science MCQs | Sustainable Development Issues

1) The expansion on PQLI is
(a) Physical Quality of Life index
(b) Physical Quantity of Life Index
(c) Product Quality Lifecycle Implementation
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

2) Birth rate is called
(a) Mortality
(b) Vital index
(c) Natality
(d) Viability
Answer: (c)

3) Death rate of the population
(a) Mortality
(b) Viability
(c) Natality
(d) Vitality
Answer: (a)

4) The Anthrax disease is caused by
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Helminthes
Answer: (b)

5) Superbugs are
(a) Synthetic bug
(b) Bacteria
(c) Radio nucleotide
(d) Industries
Answer: (b)

6) Salmonellosis is a disease related to consumption of
(a) Chicken
(b) Eggs
(c) Mutton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)

7) Causative organisms of Malaria
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Virus
Answer: (c)

8) What is ‘Black Lung?”
(a) Occupational Hazard to the miners
(b) Occupational Hazard to navigators
(c) Occupational Hazard to pesticide applicators.
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

9) What is Carcinogen?
(a) Drugs for curing infectious disease
(b) Drugs used for curing cancer
(c) Cancer causing agent
(d) Food colorants
Answer: (c)

10) Infection of HIV is usually detected by which test
(a) Elisa test
(b) Hybridization
(c) Gram staining
(d) None
Answer: (a)

11) The destruction of habitat of plants and animals is called
(a) Endemism
(b) Endangered species
(c) Habitat loss
(d) Flood
Answer: (c)

12) Zoos are examples for
(a) In-situ conservation
(b) in-vivo conservation
(c) ex-situ conservation
(d) ex vivo conservation
Answer: (c)

13) The first national park of Pakistan
(a) Lulusar-Dudipatsar National Park
(b) Shandure-Phander National Park
(c) Lal Suhanra National Park
(d) Pir Lasura National Park
Answer: (c)

14) Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro (1992) resulted in
(a) Compilation of Red list
(b) Establishment of biosphere reserves
(c) Conservation of biodiversity
(d) IUCN
Answer: (c)

15) Some species of plants and animals are extremely rare and may occur only at a few locations are called
(a) Endemic
(b) Endangered
(c) Vulnerable
(d) Threatened
Answer: (b)

16) The drug morphine is extracted from …………… plant
(a) Cocoa
(b) Belladonna
(c) Opium Poppy
(d) Tannin
Answer: (c)

17) …………….. species is known as Azadirachta Indica
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Jackfruit
(d) Banana
Answer: (a)

18) ……………….. tree is known as ‘flame of the forest’?
(a) Ziziphus
(b) Butea monosperma
(c) Jackfruit
(d) Pongamia
Answer: (b)

19) Which tree is known as Coral tree?
(a) Quercus
(b) Dipterocarps
(c) Erythrina
(d) Ziziphus
Answer: (c)

20) Which plants die after flowering?
(a) Lotus
(b) Bamboo
(c) Chrysanthemum
(d) Butea
Answer: (b)

21) Out of 4,100 mammal species in the world, Pakistan is home to
(a) 209
(b) 188
(c) 319
(d) 566
Answer: (b)

22) The four mammals known to have so far disappeared from Pakistan are the tiger (Panthera Tigris), swamp deer (Cervus duvaucelii), lion (Panthera Leo) and the.
(a) White Rhinoceros
(b) One-horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis)
(c) Elephant
(d) Hog deer
Answer: (b)

23) ……………….. is a marine tortoise which shows the unique phenomenon ‘Arribada’
(a) Olive Ridley
(b) Star Tortoise
(c) Travancore Tortoise
(d) b & c
Answer: (a)

24) Largest reptile in the world
(a) Dragon
(b) Anaconda
(c) Crocodile
(d) Python
Answer: (b)

25) In which year Broghil Valley (KPK) was declared as National Park?
(a) 1988
(b) 1996
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
Answer: (c)

26) The total population of Snow Leopard in Pakistan is estimated around
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 300
(d) 188
Answer: (c)

27) In Pakistan, mangroves forests covered 600,000 hectares but now that has been reduced to
(a) 185,000 hectares
(b) 75,000 hectares
(c) 85,000 hectares
(d) 115,000 hectares
Answer: (b)

28) In which year Kala Chitta was declared as National Park?
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2012
Answer: (b)

29) The Red Data book which lists endangered species is maintained by
(a) UNO
(b) WHO
(c) IUCN
(d) WWF
Answer: (c)

30) The largest national park in the world meeting the IUCN definition is the Northeast Greenland National Park, which was established in
(a) 1973
(b) 1974.
(c) 1976
(d) 1999
Answer: (b)

31) In which year Lal Suhanra was declared as National Park?
(a) 1972
(b) 1988
(c) 1995
(d) 2008
Answer: (a)

32) Flag ship species of Deosai National Park (Skardu) sanctuary
(a) Tiger
(b) Peacock
(c) Brown Bears
(d) Rhino
Answer: (c)

33) Herpetology is a branch of Science which deals with
(a) Aves
(b) Mammals
(c) Reptiles
(d) Fishes
Answer: (c)

34) “Silent Spring” is a well-known book written by
(a) John Miller
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Rachel Carson
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

35) First Biosphere reserve in Pakistan
(a) Lal Suhanra National Park
(b) Kirthar National Park
(c) Chitral Gol National Park
(d) Chiltan Hazarganji, National Park
Answer: (a)

36) Bears are usually hunted and killed for their
(a) Teeth
(b) Skin
(c) Gall bladder
(d) Nails
Answer: (b)

37) Coral reefs in Pakistan can be seen in
(a) Atcola Island
(b) Churna (near Karachi coast)
(c) Pasni and near Jevani
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

38) Which of the following is an extinct species?
(a) Tiger
(b) Lion
(c) Dodo
(d) Ostrich
Answer: (c)

39) Black Buck is a
(a) Goat
(b) Deer
(c) Butterfly
(d) Bird
Answer: (b)

40) Gharial is a
(a) Crocodile
(b) Cobra
(c) Tortoise
(d) Frog
Answer: (a)

41) ——— is one of the most endangered species of Pakistani birds
(a) Bee eater
(b) Chakoor
(c) Owl
(d) Houbara bustard
Answer: (d)

42) Pangolins feed on
(a) Ants
(b) Fruits
(c) Leaves
(d) Roots
Answer: (a)

43) Many wild plant and animals are on the verge of extinction due to
(a) Habitat destruction
(b) Climatic changes
(c) Non availability of food
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

44) The first global environmental protection treaty “The Montreal Protocol” was signed on Sept. 26.
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1981
(d) 1987
Answer: (d)

45) Animals and plants are best protected in
(a) Zoos
(b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks
(d) Sanctuaries
Answer: (c)

46) The Native Place of Redwood trees?
(a) Australia
(b) Amazon
(c) California
(d) Thailand
Answer: (c)

47) Which of the following pulls people to urban areas?
(a) Declining agricultural jobs
(b) Lack of land to grow food
(c) Better health care
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

48) Due to the urban population exploding in developing countries, they will need to build the equivalent of a city with more than 1 million people every __ for the next 25 years.
(a) Day
(b) Week
(c) Month
(d) Three months
(e) Year
Answer: (b)

49) Which of the following statements is false?
(a) The shift in poverty is moving rapidly from the city to the country.
(b) Developing countries are currently urbanizing faster than developed countries.
(c) Urbanization varies throughout the world but is increasing everywhere
(d) The general population growth also contributes to urban growth
(e) The shift in poverty is moving rapidly from the country to the city
Answer: (a)

50) Those who migrate and find jobs in cities can expect all of the following, except
(a) Long hours and low wages
(b) Dangerous machinery
(c) Health and retirement benefits
(d) Noise pollution
(e) High crime rate
Answer: (c)

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MCQs / Q&A, Test, World

Robert Southey Quiz

Robert Southey Quiz Questions

Click here for answers

1. When was Robert Southey born?
a) 8 February 1764
b) 5 April 1776
c) 12 August 1774
d) 4 December 1768

2. Where was Robert Southey born?
a) Lisbon
b) Liverpool
c) Ipswich
d) Bristol

3. Which school did Robert Southey attend?
a) St. George’s School
b) Westminster School
c) St. David’s School
d) Rugby School

4. Which college did Robert Southey attend?
a) Balliol College
b) Trinity College
c) King’s College
d) St. Andrew’s College

5. When did Robert Southey marry X?
a) 28 January 1799
b) 18 June 1798
c) 12 September 1796
d) 14 November 1795

6. When was Joan of Arc published?
a) 1792
b) 1796
c) 1788
d) 1786

7. What did Robert Southey and Samuel Coleridge wanted to establish?
a) Pantisocracy
b) Aristocracy
c) Plutocracy
d) Gerontocracy

8. Which Robert Southey book was published in 1814?
a) After Blenheim
b) Letters from Spain
c) Roderick the Last of the Goths
d) Madoc

9. When did Robert Southey die?
a) 21 March 1843
b) 19 May 1844
c) 23 July 1846
d) 15 October 1848

10. Where did Robert Southey die?
a) Glamorgan
b) Keswick
c) Edinburgh
d) Glasgow

Robert Southey Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Robert Southey born?
c) 12 August 1774

2. Where was Robert Southey born?
d) Bristol

3. Which school did Robert Southey attend?
b) Westminster School

4. Which college did Robert Southey attend?
a) Balliol College

5. When did Robert Southey marry X?
d) 14 November 1795

6. When was Joan of Arc published?
b) 1796

7. What did Robert Southey and Samuel Coleridge wanted to establish?
a) Pantisocracy

8. Which Robert Southey book was published in 1814?
c) Roderick the Last of the Goths

9. When did Robert Southey die?
a) 21 March 1843

10. Where did Robert Southey die?
b) Keswick

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-II) | General Science & Ability

Click HERE for Q. No.1-50.

51) Planets are always small compared with stars because otherwise ______.
( a) the rotation of the planets would cause them to disintegrate
(b) the great mass of the planets would cause them to be pulled into their parent star
(c) the great mass of the planets would prevent them from being held in orbit and they would escape
(d) the planets would be stars themselves
Answer: (d)

52) The least likely reason why planetary systems have not been directly observed around stars other than the sun is that __
(a) Planets are small
(b) Planets shine by reflected light
(c) Planetary systems are rare
(d) Other stars are far away
Answer: (c)

53) Which of the following is the correct ordering of the inner planets according to their proximity to the sun? (CSS 2012)
(a) Jupiter, Saturn , Uranus , Neptune
(b) Phobos, Deimes , Europe , Tias
(c) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

54) The term ‘Blue Shift’ is used to indicate: (CSS 2009)
(a) Doppler effect in which an object appears bluer when it is moving towards the observer or observer is moving towards the object.

(b) Turning a star from white to blue
(c) In future sun would become blue
(d) Black hole was blue at its start
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

55) Which planet of our solar system is called as Morning star? (CSS 2008)
Answer: Venus

56) What is the diameter of the earth?
Answer: 12 756.2 kilometers

57) The number of natural satellites orbiting around the Mars is: (CSS 2002/2003)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 14
Answer: (b)
Mars has two natural satellites, discovered by Asaph Hall in 1877. The innermost of these, Phobos, is about 7 mi (11 km) in diameter and orbits the planet with a period far less than Mars’s period of rotation (7 hr 39 min), causing it to rise in the west and set in the east. The outer satellite, Deimos, is about 4 mi (6 km) in diameter.

58) All stars are of the same color
(False)

59) Our galaxy milky way is shaped like a large thick concave lens with a large central bulge (CSS 2002)
(True)

60) The coldest planet of the solar system is: (CSS 2000)
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Neptune d) Pluto
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
In the past, the title for “most frigid body” went to Pluto, as it was the farthest then-designated planet from the Sun. However, due to the IAU’s decision in 2006 to reclassify Pluto as a “dwarf planet”, the title has since passed to Neptune. As the eight planet from our Sun, it is now the outermost planet in the Solar System, and hence the coldest.

61) Venus is the smallest planet of the solar system. (CSS 1999)
(False)

62) Black hole is a hypothetical region of space having a gravitational pull so great that no matter or radiation can escape from it. (CSS 1998)

63) Our solar system has about — satellites. (CSS 1996)
(a) 35
(b) 179
(c) 96
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn. The largest of these moons is Ganymede, which is one of the Galilean Moons.

64) ——- cannot be nominated for the Nobel Prize. (CSS 1996)
(a) Physicists
(b) Economists
(c) Astronomers
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

65) The largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter. (CSS 1995)

66) Planet Mars has (CSS 1995)
(a) 1 Moon
(b) 2 Moons
(c) 4 Moons
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The moons of Mars are Phobos and Deimos. Both moons were discovered in 1877 by Asaph Hall Asaph Hall was about to give up his frustrating search for a Martian moon one August night in 1877, but his wife Angelina urged him on. He discovered Deimos the next night, and Phobos six nights after that. Ninety-four years later, NASA’s Mariner 9 spacecraft got a much better look at the two moons from its orbit around Mars. The dominant feature on Phobos, it found, was a crater 10 km (6 miles) wide — nearly half the width of the moon itself. It was given Angelina’s maiden name: Stickney.

67) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS 2007)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

68) This is the measure of moisture in the air.
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Altitude
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

69) This is the greatest amount of water vapor the air could hold at a certain temperature
(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable humidity
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Absolute humidity is the measure of water vapor (moisture) in the air, regardless of temperature. It is expressed as grams of moisture per cubic meter of air (g/m3).
The maximum absolute humidity of warm air at 30°C/86°F is approximately 30g of water vapor – 30g/m3. The maximum absolute humidity of cold air at 0°C/32°F is approximately 5g of water vapor – 5g/m3.

70) This is how much actual water vapor is in the air at a certain temperature.
(a)Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Relative humidity also measures water vapor but RELATIVE to the temperature of the air. It is expressed as the amount of water vapor in the air as a percentage of the total amount that could be held at its current temperature.

71) Humidity is measured with a
(a) Barometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

72) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS-2009)
(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolas Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)

73) The most splendid and the most magnificent constellation on the sky is: (CSS-2009)
(a) Orion
(b) Columbia
(c) Canis Major
(d) Taurus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
(Canis Major is a constellation in the southern sky. Its name means “the greater dog” in Latin.) Orion, which is located on the celestial equator, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world.

74) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS-2009)
(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)

75) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS-2009)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Most asteroids lie in a vast ring between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. This main asteroid belt holds more than 200 asteroids larger than 60 miles (100 kilometers) in diameter. Scientists estimate the asteroid belt also contains more than 750,000 asteroids larger than three-fifths of a mile (1 km) in diameter and millions of smaller ones. Not everything in the main belt is an asteroid — for instance, comets have recently been discovered there, and Ceres, once thought of only as an asteroid, is now also considered a dwarf planet.

76) The largest circular storm in our solar system is on the surface of which of the following planets?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Earth
Answer: (a)
Jupiter boasts the largest storm in the Solar System . It is called the Great Red Spot and has been observed for hundreds of years that kind of storm is dwarfed by the Great Red Spot, a gigantic storm in Jupiter. There, gigantic means twice as wide as Earth. Today, scientists know the Great Red Spot is there and it’s been there for a while, but they still struggle to learn what causes its swirl of reddish hues.

77) The biggest asteroid known is:
(a) Vesta
(b) Icarus
(c) Ceres
(d) Eros
Answer: (c)
Ceres, a dwarf planet and the largest asteroid in the solar system yet known. Discovered in 1801 and first thought to be a planet and then an asteroid, we now call Ceres a dwarf planet. Gravitational forces from Jupiter billions of years ago prevented it from becoming a full-fledged planet. But Ceres has more in common with Earth and Mars than its rocky neighbors in the main asteroid belt. There may even be water ice buried under Ceres’ crust.

78) Rounded to the nearest day, the Mercurian year is equal to:
(a) 111 days
(b) 87.97 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 25 days
Answer: (b)
Mercurian Year: A year on Mercury takes 87.97 Earth days; it takes 87.97 Earth days for Mercury to orbit the sun once

79) One of the largest volcanoes in our solar system-if not the largest-is named Olympus Mons. This volcano is located on:
(a) Jupiter’s moon Callisto
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn’s moon Titan
(d) Mars
Answer: (d)
Olympus Mons is the largest volcano in the solar system. The massive Martian mountain towers high above the surrounding plains of the red planet, and may be biding its time until the next eruption. Olympus Mons rises three times higher than Earth’s highest mountain, Mount Everest, whose peak is 5.5 miles above sea level.

80) One Jupiter day is equal to which of the following?
(a) 30 hrs 40 min
(b) 9 hrs 50 min
(c) 3 hrs 20 min
(d) 52 hrs 10 min
Answer: (b)

81) The time interval between two successive occurrences of a specific type of alignment of a planet (or the moon) with the sun and the earth is referred to as:
(a) a conjunction
(b) an opposition
(c) a sidereal period
(d) a synodic period.
Answer: (d)
Synodic period , in astronomy, length of time during which a body in the solar system makes one orbit of the sun relative to the earth, i.e. The synodic period of the moon, which is called the lunar month, or lunation, is 291/2 days long; it is longer than the sidereal month.

82) Of the following four times, which one best represents the time it takes energy generated in the core of the sun to reach the surface of the sun and be radiated?
(a) Three minutes
(b) Thirty days
(c) One thousand years
(d) One million years
Answer: (d)

83) The sunspot cycle is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 26 years
(d) 49 years
Answer: (b)

The amount of magnetic flux that rises up to the Sun’s surface varies with time in a cycle called the solar cycle. This cycle lasts 11 years on average. This cycle is sometimes referred to as the sunspot cycle.

84) The Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram of stars DIRECTLY compares what TWO of the following properties of stars?
(a) size
(b) temperature
(c) luminosity
(d) Both b & c
Answer: (d)
One of the most useful and powerful plots in astrophysics is the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (hereafter called the H-R diagram). It originated in 1911 when the Danish astronomer, Ejnar Hertzsprung, plotted the absolute magnitude of stars against their color (hence effective temperature). Independently in 1913 the American astronomer Henry Norris Russell used spectral class against absolute magnitude. Their resultant plots showed that the relationship between temperature and luminosity of a star was not random but instead appeared to fall into distinct groups.

The majority of stars, including our Sun, are found along a region called the Main Sequence. Main Sequence stars vary widely in effective temperature but the hotter they are, the more luminous they are, hence the main sequence tends to follow a band going from the bottom right of the diagram to the top left. These stars are fusing hydrogen to helium in their cores. Stars spend the bulk of their existence as main sequence stars. Other major groups of stars found on the H-R diagram are the giants and supergiants; luminous stars that have evolved off the main sequence, and the white dwarfs. Whilst each of these types is discussed in detail in later pages we can use their positions on the H-R diagram to infer some of their properties.

85) The Andromeda Galaxy is which of the following types of galaxies?
(a) elliptical
(b) spiral
(c) barred-spiral
(d) irregular
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy also known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 780 kilo parsecs (2.5 million light-years) from Earth

86) About how many light years across is the Milky Way? Is it:
(a) 1,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 100,000
(d) 1,000,000
Answer: (c)
100 000 light years across
A light-year is precisely equal to a whole number of meters, namely 9460730472580800 m or approximately 9.46073 1015 m. That’s the distance traveled by light in a vacuum, at a speed of 299792458 m/s, during a “scientific year” of 31557600 s. All these numbers are exact… In particular, “Einstein’s Constant” is exactly c = 299792458 m/s, because of the latest definition of the meter, officially adopted in 1983.

87) Who was the first man to classify stars according to their brightness. Was it:
(a) Aristarchus
(b) Pythagoras
(c) Copernicus
(d) Hipparchus
Answer: (d)
The first person to classify stars by their apparent magnitude (brightness) was Hipparchus in about 130 BC. He divided the stars into classes based on how bright they appeared in the night sky. The brightest stars were classified as magnitude 1, those that were just visible to the naked eye as magnitude 6. In practice the intensity of a magnitude 1 star is 100 times that of a magnitude 6 star, so the 5 magnitude steps correspond to a multiple of 100. For a geometric series of magnitudes each magnitude must be a times the intensity of the previous one with a5 – 100. This means that going up one magnitude increases the intensity by a factor of a = 2.51. So magnitude 3 is 2.51 times as intense as magnitude 4 and so on.

88) For what reason was the Schmidt telescope specially built? Was it to serve as:
(a) a sky camera
(b) a radio telescope
(c) an optical telescope
(d) a solar telescope
Answer: (a)

A Schmidt camera, also referred to as the Schmidt telescope, is a catadioptric astrophotographic telescope designed to provide wide fields of view with limited aberrations. The design was invented by Bernhard Schmidt in 1930.

89) The greatest distance of a planet from the sun is called what? Is it the planet’s:
(a) aphelion
(b) perihelion
(c) helix
(d) eccentricity
Answer: (a)
The closest point to the Sun in a planet’s orbit is called perihelion. The furthest point is called aphelion

90) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars as compared to the atmospheric pressure of the earth? Is it:
(a) about the same as the earth’s
(b) about 100 times as great as the earth’s
(c) about 1/200th that of the earth’s
(d) half as much as that of the earth’s
Answer: (c)
The atmosphere and (probably) the interior of Mars differ substantially from that of the Earth. The atmosphere is much less dense and of different composition, and it is unlikely that the core is molten.
The atmosphere has a pressure at the surface that is only 1/200 that of Earth. The primary component of the atmosphere is carbon dioxide (95%), with the remainder mostly nitrogen. Seasonal heating drives strong winds that can reach 100 mph or more, stirring up large dust storms. Clouds form in the atmosphere, but liquid water cannot exist at the ambient pressure and temperature of the Martian surface: water goes directly between solid and vapor phases without becoming liquid.

91) A typical galaxy, such as our Milky Way galaxy, contains how many billion stars? Is it approximately:
(a) 10 billion
(b) 40 billion
(c) 400 billion
(d) 800 billion
Answer: (c)
According to astronomers, our Milky Way is an average-sized barred spiral galaxy measuring up to 120,000 light-years across. Our Sun is located about 27,000 light-years from the galactic core in the Orion arm. Astronomers estimate that the Milky Way contains up to 400 billion stars of various sizes and brightness.
According to astronomers, there are probably more than 170 billion galaxies in the observable Universe, stretching out into a region of space 13.8 billion light-years away from us in all directions.

92) A comet’s tail points in which direction?
(a) toward the sun
(b) toward the earth
(c) behind the comet in its orbit
(d) away from the sun
Answer: (d)
Comet tails are expansions of the coma. Comet tails point away from the Sun, regardless of the direction in which the comet is traveling. Comets have two tails because escaping gas and dust are influenced by the Sun in slightly different ways, and the tails point in slightly different directions.

93) Spectral line splitting due to the influence of magnetic fields is called:
(a) Boltzmann Effect
(b) Zeeman Effect
(c) Planck Effect
(d) Zanstra’s Effect
Answer: (b)
The Zeeman effect is the splitting of a spectral line by a magnetic field. That is, if an atomic spectral line of 400 nm was considered under normal conditions, in a strong magnetic field, because of the Zeeman effect, the spectral line would be split to yield a more energetic line and a less energetic line, in addition to the original line at 400 nm.

94) Which of the following is true for ORION? Orion is:
(a) the brightest star in the sky
(b) a constellation
(c) the name given to a NASA spacecraft
(d) an asteroid
Answer: (b)

95) Which of the following men wrote the book “On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres”?
(a) Kepler
(b) Euclid
(c) Copernicus
(d) Newton
Answer: (c)

De revolutionibus orbium coelestium (On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres) is the seminal work on the heliocentric theory of the Renaissance astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus (1473–1543).

96) The most distant planet in the solar system is (CSS 1995)
(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
New Dwarf Planet In Our Solar System May Be The Farthest One Yet. Object V774104 was discovered in late October, 2015, and is one of the most distant objects ever detected in the solar system. It appears to be about half the size of Pluto, but with an orbit two to three times larger than Pluto’s. (Nov 12, 2015)

97) The 2.7 Kelvin cosmic background radiation is concentrated in the:
(a) radio wavelengths
(b) infrared
(c) visible
(d) ultraviolet
Answer: (a)

98) If you were watching a star collapsing to form a black hole, the light would disappear because it:
(a) is strongly red shifted
(b) is strongly blue shifted
(c) its color suddenly becomes black
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)

99) The Magellanic Clouds are
(a) irregular galaxies
(b) spiral galaxies
(c) elliptical galaxies
(d) large clouds of gas and dust
Answer: (a)
The Magellanic Clouds are comprised of two irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud (SMC), which orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million years and each other once every 900 million years. Lying only about 200,000 light years away, they were the closest known galaxies to the Milky Way until recently, when the Sagittarius and Canis Major dwarf galaxies were discovered and found to be even closer.

100) According to Kepler’s Laws, the cube of the mean distance of a planet from the sun is proportional to the:
(a) area that is swept out
(b) cube of the period
(c) square of the period
(d) fourth power of the mean distance
Answer: (c)

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-II) | General Science & Ability Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Richard Benaud Quiz

(This quiz is about Australian Test cricketer Richard Benaud also known as Richie Benaud.)

1. Where did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
a) Sydney
b) Durban
c) Salisbury
d) Wellington

2. Against which country did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
a) South Africa
b) England
c) West Indies
d) India

3. Where did Richard Benaud score 122 in a Test Innings?
a) Calcutta
b) Dacca
c) Madras
d) Johannesburg

4. Where did Richard Benaud make his debut as Test captain?
a) Sydney
b) Brisbane
c) Lahore
d) Lord’s

5. What was the result of Brisbane Test in 1960 for Australia?
a) Win
b) Loss
c) Draw
d) Tie

6. How many Tests did Richard Benaud captain?
a) 18
b) 34
c) 28
d) 26

7. How many Test wickets did Richard Benaud take?
a) 236
b) 307
c) 252
d) 248

8. When was Richard Benaud’s My Spin on Cricket published?
a) 2005
b) 1961
c) 1983
d) 1998

9. Which book of Richard Benaud was published in 2010?
a) A Tale of Two Tests
b) Willow Patterns
c) Over But Not Out
d) The Hottest Summer

10. Which of the following is true of Richard Benaud?
a) First Test cricketer to hit a triple century
b) First Test cricketer to score 2,000 Test runs and take 200 Test wickets
c) First Test cricketer other than wicketkeeper to take six catches in a Test
d) First Australian captain to win Ashes

Richard Benaud Quiz Questions with Answers

 

 

Cover of My Spin on Cricket

1. Where did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
a) Sydney

2. Against which country did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
c) West Indies

3. Where did Richard Benaud score 122 in a Test Innings?
d) Johannesburg

4. Where did Richard Benaud make his debut as Test captain?
b) Brisbane

5. What was the result of Brisbane Test in 1960 for Australia?
d) Tie

6. How many Tests did Richard Benaud captain?
c) 28

7. How many Test wickets did Richard Benaud take?
d) 248

8. When was Richard Benaud’s My Spin on Cricket published?
a) 2005

9. Which book of Richard Benaud was published in 2010?
c) Over But Not Out

10. Which of the following is true of Richard Benaud?
b) First Test cricketer to score 2,000 Test runs and take 200 Test wickets

Richard Benaud Quiz Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Sports

How to Improve English Language for CSS / PMS Exams?

Improving English language is imperative for success in CSS. Not only that the very initial couple of papers – English Essay and Précis & Composition – filter out most of the candidates not well versed with English writing skills, the candidates are also required to attempt all papers in English language. Having a good English grammatical foundation is indispensable in this regard.

The best way to improve understanding of English grammar is to study and acquaint oneself with rules of English grammar. A very useful book to learn basic rules of English grammar is ‘English Grammar in Use’ by Raymond Murphy. It contains grammar rules with exercises to help you find out and correct your mistakes.

Read any popular book on CSS English. It helps candidates prepare for examination by focusing specifically on English Précis & Composition paper. Following guidelines would help you improve your writing skills:

Reading:

Read, read, and read is the rule for improving your writing skills. Give at least a couple of hours daily to reading books.

Quality Books:

Try to read books written by foreign authors who are native English speakers.

Articles:

Regularly read articles on topics of your interest.

Newspaper:

Reading newspapers regularly is a must.

News:

Try to follow English news bulletins. It would enrich your current affairs vocabulary.

English-only:

Make a habit and read English, write English, converse in English. It would automatically enable you to start thinking in English.

Notes-making:

Take notes while reading articles or listening to current affairs programmes.

Dictionary:

Maintain a personalized dictionary. Note down words that you find interesting and write their synonyms as well. This habit would give you a useful collection of words and phrases to be used in your scripts.

Chat Rooms & Blogs:

Try to engage in chat forums. In such forums, you have to respond quickly which sharpens your thought process. Moreover, you learn from others’ argumentation.

Public Speaking:

Always look for chances to speak in a group or in front of class. It helps you as you prepare yourself for such occasions and rectify your mistakes through internal feedback.

Revising your write-ups:

Make a habit of editing your scripts. Take help of dictionary and thesaurus and do not hesitate to substitute your phrases and words with more suitable ones. Even if you have to re-write the whole script, do it.

Guidance:

It is important to get your work checked by someone well versed with basic rules of English grammar.

Constructive Criticism:

Always be open to positive criticism for there is always a room for improvement.

How to Improve English Language for CSS / PMS Exams? Read More »

Articles, Current Affairs, English, English Grammar, Guidelines

History of the USA Converted from Henry William Elson’s History of the United States of America The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904

History of the USA

Converted from Henry William Elson’s
History of the United States of America
The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904

The following ten chapters from the original book by Henry William Elson were transcribed by Kathy Leigh. Thanks to her efforts they are offered here in e-text form for your enjoyment. Note that the table of contents below does not include original pagination or chapters that are not available online. Scholars should reference the text at any major library.

E-Text Table of Contents

History of the USA Converted from Henry William Elson’s History of the United States of America The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904 Read More »

History, US History

100 MCQs About World History

100 MCQs About World History

1. What is the oldest daily newspaper in England? – The Times

2. Which two American states joined the union in 1959? – Alaska and Hawaii

3. Which American President ordered the dropping of the first atomic bomb? – Harry S Truman

4. In which century did King George IV rule Great Britain? – 18th

5. After which famous person in history was the teddy bear named? – Theodore Roosevelt

6. What was the name given to the trials of 24 Nazi leaders for war crimes in 1945? – The Nuremberg Trials

7. In what century was the Taj Mahal built? – 17th

8. Which gangster said ‘I’ve been accused of every death except the casualty list of the World War’? – Al Capone

9. In what year was Prince William born? – 1982

10. The word ‘book’ originates from the middle English word ‘bok’ meaning which type of
tree? – Beech

11. Richard Byrd is credited with having been the first person to fly over what particular spot
in the world? – The North Pole

12. Why don’t the restaurants ‘Palm Court’, ‘Cafe Parisien’ and ‘Verandah’ exist anymore? – They were on the Titanic

13. What city was the capital of Poland between 1320 and 1611? – Krakow

14. Who was the first President of America? – George Washington

15. Which American President served only 31 days? – William Harrison

16. When the first World War broke out which three countries made up the Triple Entente? –
France, England and Russia

17. What is Adam’s ale or Adam’s wine? – Water

18. Who were the mother and father of Elizabeth I? – Anne Boleyn and Henry VIII

19. Which British Prime Minister resigned because of the Suez crisis? – Anthoney Eden

20. For what was Rosa Parks arrested in 1955, leading to the biggest US Civil Rights
movement? – Refusing to give up her seat on a bus for a white man

21. John Major became a member of Parliament in 1979 for which town, north of London? –
Huntingdon

22. Which American President was shot in 1901 and died 8 days later? – McKinley

23. The Battle of Bosworth in 1485 was the last battle of which series of wars? – The Wars Of The Roses

24. The explorer Sir Edmund Hillary was from which country? – New Zealand

25. The popular British pub name ‘The Royal Oak’ is named after which King? – Charles II (he hid in an oak tree to escape enemies)

26. Collectively, by what name are Carole Richardson, Patrick Armstrong, Paul Hill and Gerard Conlon better known? – The Guildford Four

27. In which century was the world’s first public railway opened? – 19th

28. The invention of what in 1867, made Alfred Nobel famous? – Dynamite

29. What was King William II killed by? An arrow, the plague or old age? – An Arrow

30. In Greek mythology, who was the goddess of marriage, women and childbirth? – Hera

31. In what year did Margaret Thatcher become Prime Minister? – 1979

32. In what year was London due to host the Olympic Games, but couldn’t because of the Second World War? – 1944

33. On March 3rd, 1991, who was severly beaten by Los Angeles police officers causing public outcry? – Rodney King

34. Which king was the target of the Gunpowder plot of 1605? – James I

35. What alloy was the most important metal for tools and weapons between the years 4000
and 2000 B.C.? – Bronze

36. In which year did Tony Blair first become British Prime Minister? – 1997

37. Who was the first US President to meet with a reigning British monarch? – Woodrow Wilson

38. In which month in 1914, did Britain declare war on Germany? – August

39. Thomas Chippendale was best known for making and designing what in the 18th century? – Furniture

40. What historic event does the nursery rhyme ‘Ring-a-ring of roses’ commemorate? – The Great Plague

41. In which year did colour TV transmissions begin in Britain? – 1969

42. As at the year 2001, who has been the tallest American President? – Abraham Lincoln

43. Which famous London department store opened on 15th March, 1909? – Selfridges

44. Which of the following occurred most recently? The Iron Age or The Bronze Age? – Iron Age

45. Who is the only American President to have served non-consecutive terms in office? – Grover Cleveland

46. In which country did the cloning of Dolly the sheep take place? – Scotland

47. Who ordered the beheading of Mary Queen Of Scots? – Queen Elizabeth I

48. Which English queen was married to Lord Guildford Dudley? – Lady Jane Grey

49. Which geographical location was the first word spoken on the moon? – Houston

50. What was Hitler’s title as the leader of Nazi Germany? – Fuhrer

51. What was the surname of Zachary, the President of the USA between 1849 and 1850? –Taylor

52. How many of Henry VIII’s wives had been previously married? – 2

53. Who did Queen Elizabeth I succeed to the throne? – Mary I

54. In which war was the Victoria Cross first awarded? – The Crimean War

55. In which century did the diamond engagement ring first become popular? – 15th

56. Which country declared war on both Germany and the Allies in World War II? – Italy

57. Which two brothers are associated with the invention of the aeroplane? – Orville and Wilbur Wright

58. By what title was Oliver Cromwell known? – Lord Protector

59. In 1978, what was Sweden’s most profitable export, ahead of Volvo? – Abba

60. What was the name of the bomb which was dropped on Nagasaki during World War II? – Fat Man

61. How did Robert The Bruce die? – Of the disease leprosy

62. Which famous museum opened in London, in April 1928? – Madam Tussauds

63. In Greek mythology, what was unusual about Medusa’s hair? – It was made of snakes

64. In America, what became the 49th state to enter the union in 1959? – Alaska

65. Which district of London was named after a battle fought in 1815? – Waterloo

66. In what year did the first successful Mars landings take place? – 1976

67. For how many years did the Jurassic period last? – 180 million

68. In which century was Mary, Queen Of Scots executed? – 16th

69. Who was the first American President to visit China? – Richard Nixon

70. Parker and Barrow were the surnames of which famous couple? – Bonnie and Clyde

71. What type of animal was the first to be sent into space? – A dog

72. For what reason did American Sally Ride become famous in 1983? – First American female in space

73. In which year did Richard Nixon begin the secret bombing of Cambodia? – 1969

74. Which famous person in history invented the greeting, ‘Hello’ first used for answering the telephone? – Thomas Edison

75. Who was the famous son of the Greek princess Olympias? – Alexander The Great

76. What were the names of Adam and Eve’s three sons? – Cain, Abel and Seth

77. Which war was called the ‘War to end all wars’? – World War I

78. In what year did Laika the dog become the first space traveller? – 1957

79. Which country in Europe has the oldest Parliament? – Iceland

80. Who was the third President of America and chief author of the Declaration Of Independence? – Thomas Jefferson

81. In what year was the battle of Agincourt? – 1415

82. By what name was the Scottish outlaw Robert McGregor better known? – Rob Roy

83. In 1969, what became the first song to be sung in outer space? – Happy Birthday

84. By what name was Sir Arthur Wellesley better known? – Duke of Wellington

85. What was the name of the suffragette who threw herself under the King’s horse in the
1913 Derby? – Emily Davison

86. What was the profession of Alexander Graham Bell, inventor of the telephone? – Teacher (of deaf and dumb children)

87. Which country suffered over 6 million deaths in World War II, equivalent to over 17% of
it’s population? – Poland

88. Which English King was killed by an arrow at the battle of Hastings? – King Harold

89. Who was murdered by Robert Ford? – Jesse James

90. In what year were protesting students murdered in Tiananman Square? – 1989

91. Which US President was forced to resign because of the Watergate scandal? – Richard Nixon

92. Which monarch’s last words were ‘All my possessions for a moment of time’? – Elizabeth  I

93. What happened in 1847 that is sometimes referred to as ‘Black Forty Seven’? – The potato famine in Ireland

94. In which country did Venetian blinds originate? Italy, India or Japan? – Japan

95. In which country was Mother Theresa born? – Yugoslavia

96. Who was the first American President to die while in office? – William Harrison

97. What was the maiden name of the bride at the first wedding watched by over 750 million
people? – Diana Spencer

98. Who was Queen Elizabeth II’s father? – George VI

99. Which famous raid did Guy Gibson lead in 1943? – The Dambusters

100. Who, in 1901, was the first man to send a Radio Telegraph signal across the Atlantic
Ocean? – Guglielmo Marconi

 

100 MCQs About World History Read More »

English, History, MCQs / Q&A, World