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William Harvey Quiz

William Harvey Quiz Questions

1. What did William Harvey discover?
a) Blood circulation (Correct)
b) Planetary motions
c) Cortisol
d) Vitamins

2. When was William Harvey born?
a) 31 March 1584
b) 1 April 1578 (Correct)
c) 25 September 1587
d) 30 December 1575

3. Where was William Harvey born?
a) Richmond
b) Plymouth
c) Liverpool
d) Folkestone (Correct)

4. Which college did William Harvey attend?
a) Christ College
b) Gonville and Caius College (Correct)
c) Rhodes College
d) Trinity College

5. Which university did William Harvey attend?
a) London
b) Oxford
c) Padua (Correct)
d) Edinburgh

6. At which hospital did William Harvey serve?
a) St. Bartholomew’s (Correct)
b) St. John’s
c) St. Luke’s
d) St. Andrew’s

7. Who appointed William Harvey physician extraordinary in 1618?
a) George II
b) William IV
c) James I (Correct)
d) Edward IV

8. When did William Harvey publish Exercitatio Anatomica de Motu Cordis et Sanguinis in Animalibus?
a) 1880
b) 1628 (Correct)
c) 1885
d) 1882

9. When did William Harvey die?
a) 18 January 1648
b) 3 June 1657 (Correct)
c) 7 July 1660
d) 12 November 1665

10. Where did William Harvey die?
a) Nuremberg
b) Prague
c) Vienna
d) London (Correct)

William Harvey Quiz Read More »

MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Richard Benaud Quiz

(This quiz is about Australian Test cricketer Richard Benaud also known as Richie Benaud.)

1. Where did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
a) Sydney
b) Durban
c) Salisbury
d) Wellington

2. Against which country did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
a) South Africa
b) England
c) West Indies
d) India

3. Where did Richard Benaud score 122 in a Test Innings?
a) Calcutta
b) Dacca
c) Madras
d) Johannesburg

4. Where did Richard Benaud make his debut as Test captain?
a) Sydney
b) Brisbane
c) Lahore
d) Lord’s

5. What was the result of Brisbane Test in 1960 for Australia?
a) Win
b) Loss
c) Draw
d) Tie

6. How many Tests did Richard Benaud captain?
a) 18
b) 34
c) 28
d) 26

7. How many Test wickets did Richard Benaud take?
a) 236
b) 307
c) 252
d) 248

8. When was Richard Benaud’s My Spin on Cricket published?
a) 2005
b) 1961
c) 1983
d) 1998

9. Which book of Richard Benaud was published in 2010?
a) A Tale of Two Tests
b) Willow Patterns
c) Over But Not Out
d) The Hottest Summer

10. Which of the following is true of Richard Benaud?
a) First Test cricketer to hit a triple century
b) First Test cricketer to score 2,000 Test runs and take 200 Test wickets
c) First Test cricketer other than wicketkeeper to take six catches in a Test
d) First Australian captain to win Ashes

Richard Benaud Quiz Questions with Answers

 

 

Cover of My Spin on Cricket

1. Where did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
a) Sydney

2. Against which country did Richard Benaud make his Test debut?
c) West Indies

3. Where did Richard Benaud score 122 in a Test Innings?
d) Johannesburg

4. Where did Richard Benaud make his debut as Test captain?
b) Brisbane

5. What was the result of Brisbane Test in 1960 for Australia?
d) Tie

6. How many Tests did Richard Benaud captain?
c) 28

7. How many Test wickets did Richard Benaud take?
d) 248

8. When was Richard Benaud’s My Spin on Cricket published?
a) 2005

9. Which book of Richard Benaud was published in 2010?
c) Over But Not Out

10. Which of the following is true of Richard Benaud?
b) First Test cricketer to score 2,000 Test runs and take 200 Test wickets

Richard Benaud Quiz Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Sports

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Questions

Click here for answers

1. When was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) 4 February 1924
b) 2 April 1918
c) 7 September 1914
d) 28 December 1912

2. Where was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) Mount Pleasant
b) Silver Spring
c) Dartmouth
d) Charlestown

3. Which college did James Alfred Van Allen attend?
a) William and Mary College
b) Iowa Wesleyan College
c) St. Dominic’s College
d) Sacred Heart College

4. What was Aerobee which James Alfred Van Allen helped develop?
a) Missile
b) Satellite
c) Rocket
d) Destroyer

5. When was James Alfred Van Allen professor of physics at the University of Iowa?
a) 1951-1985
b) 1942-1946
c) 1946-1950
d) 1988-1998

6. What was the year 1957-1958?
a) Second International Polar Year
b) International Geophysical Year
c) International Year of Youth
d) International Year of Telecommunications

7. When was Explorer launched?
a) 26 July 1969
b) 12 June 1964
c) 31 January 1958
d) 12 November 1952

8. When did James Alfred Van Allen discover Van Allen radiation belts?
a) 1948
b) 1972
c) 1962
d) 1958

9. When did James Alfred Van Allen die?
a) 26 March 2008
b) 9 August 2006
c) 28 May 2004
d) 14 October 2012

10. Where did James Alfred Van Allen die?
a) New York
b) San Francisco
c) Los Angeles
d) Iowa City

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was James Alfred Van Allen born?
c) 7 September 1914

2. Where was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) Mount Pleasant

3. Which college did James Alfred Van Allen attend?
b) Iowa Wesleyan College

4. What was Aerobee which James Alfred Van Allen helped develop?
c) Rocket

5. When was James Alfred Van Allen professor of physics at the University of Iowa?
a) 1951-1985

6. What was the year 1957-1958?
b) International Geophysical Year

7. When was Explorer launched?
c) 31 January 1958

8. When did James Alfred Van Allen discover Van Allen radiation belts?
d) 1958

9. When did James Alfred Van Allen die?
b) 9 August 2006

10. Where did James Alfred Van Allen die?
d) Iowa City

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

10 Important Climate Change Facts

1) Temperatures are breaking records around the world:

The 21st century has seen the most temperature records broken in recorded history. 2016 was the hottest year on record since 1880, according to NASA, with average temperatures measuring 1.78 degrees Fahrenheit (0.99 degrees Celsius) warmer than the mid-20th century mean Since the 1950s, every continent has warmed substantially. NASA’s latest visualizations, above, make that reality stark.

2) There is no scientific debate about the reality of climate change:

Multiple studies show that a massive 97 per cent of researchers believe global warming is happening But climate change is considered only the third most serious issue facing the world by the world’s population, behind international terrorism and poverty, hunger and the lack of drinking water

3) Arctic sea ice and glaciers are melting:

Arctic sea ice coverage has shrunk every decade since 1979 by 3.5 to 4.1 per cent. Glaciers have also been in retreat, including in major mountain ranges like the Alps, Himalayas and Rockies. In 2017, Arctic sea ice reached a record low for the third straight running

4) Sea levels are rising at their fastest rate in 2,000 years:

Levels are currently rising at their fastest rate for more than 2,000 years and the current rate of change is 3.4mm a year. In July, a massive crack in the Larson C ice shelf finally gave way sending a 5,800 square km section of ice into the ocean. The newly formed iceberg is nearly four times the size of London.

5) Climate change will lead to a refugee crisis:

An average of 21.5 million people have been forcibly displaced since 2008 due to climate changed-related weather hazards, according to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.

6) Two-thirds of the Great Barrier Reef has been damaged as a result of climate change:

In April 2017, it was revealed that two-thirds of Australia’s Great Barrier Reef has been severely damaged by coral bleaching. As a result, the coral loses its vibrant appearance, turns white and becomes weaker. Scientists say it will be hard for the damaged coral to recover.

7) The ocean is 26 percent more acidic than before the Industrial Revolution:

The pH of ocean surface water has decreased by 0.1, which makes them 26 percent more acidic now than at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution. The waters are more acidic now that at any other point in the last 300,000 years.

8) Global flooding could triple by 2030:

The number of people exposed to flooding each year is at risk of tripling from 21 million to 54 million by 2030, This would result in the economic costs of flooding increasing from £65 billion to around £340 billion.

9) More greenhouse gases are in our atmosphere than any time in human history:

The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere reached the milestone of 400 parts per million for the first time in 2015 and surged again to new records in 2016

10) Earth could warm by six degrees this century:

The Earth’s temperature will continue to rise so long as we continue to produce greenhouse gases. The estimates for how much temperature will increase by 2100 range from two degrees Celsius to as much as six degrees Celsius.

10 Important Climate Change Facts Read More »

Articles

Brunei Quiz

Brunei Quiz Questions

1) When did Brunei become independent?
a) 1 January 1984
b) 26 May 1976
c) 11 September 1972
d) 26 November 1981

2) Who is the head of state of Brunei?
a) Caliph
b) Emir
c) Nawab
d) Sultan

3) Which country is to the east, west and south of Brunei?
a) Vietnam
b) Laos
c) Malaysia
d) Cambodia

4) Which sea is to the north of Brunei?
a) Arabian
b) South China
c) Java
d) Cara

5) Which is the capital of Brunei?
a) Bandar Seri Begawan
b) Labu
c) Medit
d) Sukang

6) Which is the official religion of Brunei?
a) Bahai
b) Islam
c) Jainism
d) Shintoism

7) When was the Islamic University of Sultan Sharif Ali opened?
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 2007
d) 2000

 

8) Which is the currency of Brunei?
a) Dirham
b) Dollar
c) Taka
d) Riyal

9) Which is the official language of Brunei?
a) Arabic
b) Hindi
c) Malay
d) Urdu

10) What is the area of Brunei?
a) 820 sq. mi.
b) 2,226 sq. mi.
c) 7,210 sq. mi.
d) 594 sq. mi.

Brunei Quiz Questions with Answers

 

1) When did Brunei become independent?
a) 1 January 1984

2) Who is the head of state of Brunei?
d) Sultan

3) Which country is to the east, west and south of Brunei?
c) Malaysia

4) Which sea is to the north of Brunei?
b) South China

5) Which is the capital of Brunei?
a) Bandar Seri Begawan

6) Which is the official religion of Brunei?
b) Islam

7) When was the Islamic University of Sultan Sharif Ali opened?
c) 2007

8) Which is the currency of Brunei?
b) Dollar

9) Which is the official language of Brunei?
c) Malay

10) What is the area of Brunei?
b) 2,226 sq. mi.

Brunei Quiz Read More »

MCQs / Q&A, World

Major Airlines of the World – Top 100 Airlines with Numbers of Flights Per DAy

  • Lufthansa German Airlines Germany
  • Aero-flot Airline – Russia
  • Pan American World Airways System – S.A.
  • Trans-world Airways – S.A.
  • Delta Airlines – S.A.
  • Thai Airways International – Thailand
  • Swissair – Switzerland
  • Emirates – A.E
  • Air-Ceylon – Sri Lanka
  • Iberia – Spain
  • Pakistan International Airlines – Pakistan
  • Braathens – Norway
  • Scandinavian Airlines System – Norway
  • KLM Royal Dutch – Netherlands
  • Royal Nepal Airlines – Nepal
  • Japan Airlines – Japan
  • All Nippon Airways – Japan
  • Alitalia – Italy
  • Ryanair – Ireland
  • Garuda Airways – Indonesia
  • Air-India – India
  • Cathay Pacific – Hong Kong
  • Air France – France
  • Finnair – Finland
  • Easy Jet – England
  • O.A.C. – England
  • Sabena – Belgium Qantas
  • Empire Airways – Australia
  • Araina Afghan Airlines – Afghanistan

 

Here is a list (as on 2020-04-03) of the 100 biggest airlines based on the number of departures (and not the number of passengers). The number of flights is the daily average for one week.

1 – American Airlines – 5961 flights every day
2 – Delta Air Lines – 4290 flights every day
3 – United Airlines – 4048 flights every day
4 – Southwest Airlines – 3795 flights every day
5 – Ryanair – 2151 flights every day
6 – easyJet – 1785 flights every day
7 – China Southern Airlines – 1781 flights every day
8 – China Eastern Airlines – 1716 flights every day
9 – IndiGo – 1665 flights every day
10 – Turkish Airlines – 1379 flights every day
11 – Air Canada – 1325 flights every day
12 – Air China – 1244 flights every day
13 – ANA – 1224 flights every day
14 – Alaska Airlines – 1119 flights every day
15 – LATAM Airlines – 1111 flights every day
16 – Air France – 1010 flights every day
17 – Aeroflot – 938 flights every day
18 – JetBlue Airways – 921 flights every day
19 – JAL – 825 flights every day
20 – British Airways – 782 flights every day
21 – Lufthansa – 720 flights every day
22 – KLM – 675 flights every day
23 – Qantas – 668 flights every day
24 – Shenzhen Airlines – 664 flights every day
25 – Gol – 660 flights every day
26 – Spirit Airlines – 646 flights every day
27 – Lion Air – 639 flights every day
28 – Wizz Air – 636 flights every day
29 – Vueling – 627 flights every day
30 – Azul – 620 flights every day
31 – Xiamen Airlines – 589 flights every day
32 – SpiceJet – 583 flights every day
33 – AirAsia – 583 flights every day
34 – WestJet – 575 flights every day
35 – AVIANCA – 575 flights every day
36 – Hainan Airlines – 568 flights every day
37 – Sichuan Airlines – 523 flights every day
38 – Shandong Airlines – 485 flights every day
39 – Saudia – 478 flights every day
40 – Emirates – 463 flights every day
41 – Air India – 457 flights every day
42 – Pegasus – 446 flights every day
43 – Garuda Indonesia – 439 flights every day
44 – Qatar Airways – 429 flights every day
45 – Wings Air – 426 flights every day
46 – Volaris – 398 flights every day
47 – Alitalia – 393 flights every day
48 – Aeromexico – 390 flights every day
49 – S7 Airlines – 389 flights every day
50 – Air New Zealand – 383 flights every day
51 – Thai AirAsia – 370 flights every day
52 – Frontier Airlines – 362 flights every day
53 – Malaysia Airlines – 361 flights every day
54 – Iberia – 356 flights every day
55 – Virgin Australia – 355 flights every day
56 – Vietnam Airlines – 353 flights every day
57 – Batik Air – 352 flights every day
58 – Ethiopian Airlines – 350 flights every day
59 – Jetstar – 350 flights every day
60 – Spring Airlines – 348 flights every day
61 – VietJet Air – 347 flights every day
62 – Philippine Airlines – 343 flights every day
63 – SAS – 335 flights every day
64 – Ravn Alaska – 334 flights every day
65 – Juneyao Airlines – 323 flights every day
66 – TAP Portugal – 313 flights every day
67 – Cebu Pacific Air – 310 flights every day
68 – Gestair – 307 flights every day
69 – Eurowings – 305 flights every day
70 – Shanghai Airlines – 302 flights every day
71 – Aer Lingus – 299 flights every day
72 – GoAir – 295 flights every day
73 – Citilink – 293 flights every day
74 – LOT – Polish Airlines – 281 flights every day
75 – Beijing Capital Airlines – 276 flights every day
76 – Interjet – 274 flights every day
77 – Aerolineas Argentinas – 273 flights every day
78 – Cape Air – 259 flights every day
79 – South African Airways – 255 flights every day
80 – Lucky Air – 253 flights every day
81 – Sriwijaya Air – 252 flights every day
82 – Copa Airlines – 251 flights every day
83 – Tianjin Airlines – 251 flights every day
84 – Norwegian Air Shuttle – 243 flights every day
85 – Hawaiian Airlines – 241 flights every day
86 – SWISS – 240 flights every day
87 – Allegiant Air – 236 flights every day
88 – Etihad Airways – 232 flights every day
89 – Austrian – 229 flights every day
90 – Tropic Air – 226 flights every day
91 – Air Europa – 224 flights every day
92 – Finnair – 220 flights every day
93 – AirAsia India – 220 flights every day
94 – Cathay Pacific – 218 flights every day
95 – Jet2 – 216 flights every day
96 -Singapore Airlines – 211 flights every day
97 – Maya Island Air – 209 flights every day
98 -Vistara – 204 flights every day
99 -Jeju Air – 203 flights every day
100 – EgyptAir – 199 flights every day

Click HERE to see the Largest airlines in the world page on Wikipedia

Major Airlines of the World – Top 100 Airlines with Numbers of Flights Per DAy Read More »

General Knowledge, Uncategorized, World

List Of Country , Capital & Currencies Quiz

List Of Country , Capital & Currencies Quiz

1. The Currency of Antigua and Barbuda is – East Caribbean dollar

2. The Capital of Andorra is – Andorra la Vella

3. The Capital of Belorussian ruble is – Belorussian

4. The Capital of the Country Belize is – Belmopan

5. The Currency of Bhutan is – Ngultrum

6. The Country Name of the Capital Sarajevo is – Bosnia and Herzegovina

7. The Capital of Brunei is – Bandar Seri Begawan

8. The Capital of Sofia is – Bulgaria

9. The Capital of Burkina Faso is – Ouagadougou

10. The Currency of Phnom Penh is – Riel

11. The Country of Yaounde is – Cameroon

12. The Currency of Ottawa is – Canadian dollar

13. The Country of Bangui is – Central African Republic

14. The Capital of Chad is – N’Djamena

15. The Currency of Santiago is – Chilean Peso

16. The Currency of Beijing is – Yuan/Renminbi

17. The Country of Colombian Peso is – Colombia

18. The Currency of Brazzaville is – CFA Franc

19. The Capital of Congolese franc is – Kinshasa

20. The Capital of Yamoussoukro is – Cote d’Ivoire

21. The Currency of Croatia is – Kuna

22. The Capital of Cuba is – Havana

23. The Country of Cyprus pound is – Cyprus

24. The Capital of Prague is – Czech Republic

25. The Capital of Copenhagen is – Denmark

26. The Currency of Djibouti is – Djibouti franc

27. The Capital of Prague East Caribbean dollar is – Roseau

28. The Capital of Dominican Republic is – Santo Domingo

29. The Currency of East Timor is – U.S. dollar

30. The Country of Egyptian pound is – Egypt

31. The Capital of El Salvador is – San Salvador

32. The Country of Malabo is – Equatorial Guinea

33. The Currency of Asmara is – Nakfa

34. The Country of Tallinn is – Estonia

35. The Country of Addis Ababa is – Ethiopia

36. The Currency of Suva is – Fiji dollar

37. The Country of Helsinki is – Finland

38. The Currency of France is – Euro

39. The Country of Libreville is – Gabon

40. The Country of Banjul is – The Gambia

41. The Capital of Georgia is – Tbilisi

42. The Capital of Germany is – Berlin

43. The Capital of Ghana is – Accra

44. The Country of Athens is – Greece

45. The Currency of Saint George’s is – East Caribbean dollar

46. The Capital of Guatemala City is – Guatemala

47. The Currency of Conakry is – Guinean franc

48.The Country of Bissau is – Guinea-Bissau

49. The Capital of Guyana is – Georgetown

50. The Country of Port-au-Prince is – Haiti

51. The Capital of Indonesia is – Jakarta

52. The Capital of Honduras is – Tegucigalpa

53. The Currency of Budapest is – Forint

54. The Capital of Icelandic króna is – Reykjavik

55. The Currency of Tehran is – Rial

56. The Currency of Baghdad is – Iraqi Dinar

57. The Capital of Dublin is – Ireland

58. The Capital of Israel is – Jerusalem

59. The Currency of Kingston is – Jamaican dollar

60. The Capital of Jordanian dinar is – Amman

61. The Currency of Kazakhstan is – Tenge

62. The Capital of Kenya shilling is – Nairobi

63. The Country of Tarawa Atoll is – Kiribati

64. The Currency of Pyongyang is – Won

65. The Country of Pristina is – Kosovo

66. The Currency of Kuwait City is – Kuwaiti dinar

67. The Country of Bishkek is – Kyrgyzstan

68. The Capital of Laos is – Vientiane

69. The Currency of Latviis – Lats

70. The Currency of Beirut is – Lebanese pound

71. The Country of Maseru is – Lesotho

72. The Currency of Monrovia is – Liberian dollar

73. The Country of Tripoli is – Libya

74. The Currency of Liechtenstein is – Swiss franc

75. The Capital of Lithuania is – Vilnius

76. The Currency of Luxembourg is – Euro

77. The Capital of Macedonia is – Skopje

78. The Country of Antananarivo is – Madagascar

79. The Currency of Lilongwe is – Kwacha

80. The Capital of Malaysia is – Kuala Lumpur

81. The Country of Rufiya is – Maldives

82. The Currency of Bamako is – CFA Franc

83. The Currency of Valletta is – Maltese lira

84.The Country of Nouakchott is – Mauritania

85.The Capital of Port Louis is – Mauritius

86. The Currency of Mexico City is – Mexican peso

87. The Country of Palikir is – Micronesia

88. The Capital of Moldova is – Chisinau

89. The Currency of Monaco is – Euro

90. The Country of Ulaanbaatar is – Mongolia

91. The Capital of Montenegro is – Podgorica

92. The Currency of Rabat is – Dirham

93. The Capital of Maputo is – Mozambique

94. The Currency of Rangoon is – Kyat

95. The Country of Windhoek is – Namibia

96. The Country of Australian dollar is – Nauru

97. The Currency of Kathmandu is – Nepalese rupee

98. The Country of Amsterdam is – Netherlands

99. The Currency of Wellington is – New Zealand dollar

100. The Capital of Gold cordoba is – Managua

List Of Country , Capital & Currencies Quiz Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, World

Nagpur Cricket Test 2010 Quiz

1. How many runs South Africa had scored when it lost two wickets in first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 0
b) 72
c) 6
d) 24

2. How many runs did South Africa score in first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 320
b) 558/6 decl.
c) 329/8 decl.
d) 494

3. Who conceded 140 runs and did not take any wicket in South Africa’s first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) Amit Misra
b) Ishant Sharma
c) Irfan Pathan
d) Yusuf Pathan

4. How many runs did India score in first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 644
b) 480
c) 233
d) 644/9 decl.

5. Who scored 109 runs in India’s first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) Yuvraj Singh
b) Gautam Gambhir
c) Murali Vijay
d) Virender Sehwag

6. Who had the bowling figures of 16.4-6-51-7 in India’s first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) More Morkel
b) Dale Steyn
c) Paul Harris
d) Wayne Parnell

7. How many runs did India score in second Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 319
b) 558/6 decl
c) 229
d) 306

8. Who scored 100 runs in India’s second Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) Subramanian Badrinath
b) Rahul Dravid
c) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Wriddhiman Saha

9. How many wickets did Dale Steyn take in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 8
d) 6

10. What was the result of Nagpur Test 2010?
a) Draw
b) Tie
c) India won by 8 wickets
d) South Africa won by an Innings and 6 runs

 

Nagpur Test 2010 Quiz Answers

1. How many runs South Africa had scored when it lost two wickets in first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
c) 6

2. How many runs did South Africa score in first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
b) 558/6 decl.

3. Who conceded 140 runs and did not take any wicket in South Africa’s first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) Amit Misra

4. How many runs did India score in first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
c) 233

5. Who scored 109 runs in India’s first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
d) Virender Sehwag

6. Who had the bowling figures of 16.4-6-51-7 in India’s first Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
b) Dale Steyn

7. How many runs did India score in second Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 319

8. Who scored 100 runs in India’s second Innings in Nagpur Test 2010?
c) Sachin Tendulkar

9. How many wickets did Dale Steyn take in Nagpur Test 2010?
a) 10

10. What was the result of Nagpur Test 2010?
d) South Africa won by an Innings and 6 runs

Nagpur Cricket Test 2010 Quiz Read More »

MCQs / Q&A, Sports, Test

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability

The universe, Galaxy, Light Year, Solar System, Sun, Earth, Astronomical System of Units

1) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
In terms of mass, volume, and surface area, Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System by a wide margin.
Size and Mass:
Jupiter’s mass, volume, surface area and mean circumference are 1.8981 x 1027 kg, 1.43128 x 1015 km3, 6.1419 x 1010 km2, and 4.39264 x 105 km respectively. To put that in perspective, Jupiter diameter is roughly 11 times that of Earth, and 2.5 the mass of all the other planets in the Solar System combined.

2) The universe is ———-. (CSS 1996)

(a) Stationary
(b) Expanding
(c) Contracting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In June 2016, NASA and ESA scientists reported that the universe was found to be expanding 5% to 9% faster than thought earlier, based on studies using the Hubble Space Telescope

3) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) . 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) . 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Moon has no atmosphere. None. That’s why astronauts have to wear their spacesuits when they get outside of their spacecraft on the surface of the Moon.
Atmosphere of the Moon might be electro statically levitated moon dust. These tiny particles are constantly leaping up and down off the surface of the Moon.

4) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?

(a) Edwin Hubble
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar
(d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: (a)
The Hubble Space Telescope was named after astronomer Edwin Powell Hubble (1889–1953), who made some of the most important discoveries in modern astronomy. Dr. Hubble determined that the farther a galaxy is from Earth, the faster it appears to move away. This notion of an “expanding” universe formed the basis of the Big Bang theory, which states that the universe began with an intense burst of energy at a single moment in time — and has been expanding ever since.

5) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?

(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer: (a)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn.

6) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer: (c)
Venus is the only planet that rotates clockwise. Venus (radius 3,760.4 miles) is similar to Earth (radius 3,963.19 miles) in size and structure but spins very slowly; a day on Venus is 243 Earth days long.

7) Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their sizes?

(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Jupiter (69,911 km / 43,441 miles) – 1,120% the size of Earth
Saturn (58,232 km / 36,184 miles) – 945% the size of Earth
Uranus (25,362 km / 15,759 miles) –400% the size of Earth
Neptune (24,622 km / 15,299 miles) – 388% the size of Earth
Earth (6,371 km / 3,959 miles)

8) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is

(a) 50 Million years
(b) 100 Million years
(c) 250 Million years
(d) 365 Million years
Answer: (c)
the Sun is dragging us around the galaxy at around 800,000km/h, taking around 250 million years to complete a single orbit.
That means our Solar System has made around 18 complete circuits since it was formed around 4.5 billion years ago.

9): The planet having the largest diameter is

(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer: (b)
Jupiter is composed primarily of gaseous and liquid matter. It is the largest of the four giant planets in the Solar System and hence its largest planet. It has a diameter of 142,984 km (88,846 mi) at its equator

10) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun is (CSS 2010)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 98 days
(d) 60 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A year on Mercury is just 88 days long. One solar day (the time from noon to noon on the planet’s surface) on Mercury lasts the equivalent of 176 Earth days while the sidereal day (the time for 1 rotation in relation to a fixed point) lasts 59 Earth days. Mercury is nearly tidally locked to the Sun and over time this has slowed the rotation of the planet to almost match its orbit around the Sun. Mercury also has the highest orbital eccentricity of all the planets with its distance from the Sun ranging from 46 to 70 million km.

11) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. Jupiter has a mean radius of 43,440.7 miles (69,911 kilometers), about a tenth that of the sun. However, its rapid rotation — it spins once every 9.8 hours

12) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Apollo 17 mission deployed an instrument called the Lunar Atmospheric Composition Experiment (LACE) on the moon’s surface. It detected small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.

13) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS 2009)

(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

14) The sun produces most of its energy by (CSS 2012)

(a) Nuclear fusion which involves converting “H” to “He”
(b) Nuclear fission involving the burning of uranium & plutonium
(c) Nuclear fission involving the combining of uranium and palladium
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Sun, like all stars, is able to create energy because it is essentially a massive fusion reaction.
The core of the Sun is the region that extends from the center to about 20–25% of the solar radius. It is here, in the core, where energy is produced by hydrogen atoms (H) being converted into molecules of helium (He) This is possible thanks to the extreme pressure and temperature that exists within the core, which are estimated to be the equivalent of 250 billion atmospheres (25.33 trillion KPa) and 15.7 million kelvin, respectively.

15) Although the mass of a man on moon remains same as on the earth he will (CSS 2012)

(a) Be much happier there
(b) Weigh one sixth as much
(c) Weigh twice as much
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The Moon’s gravity is one sixth of the Earth’s gravity. A 120 kg astronaut weighs 1200 N on Earth. On the Moon they would weigh only 200 N. The astronaut’s mass is 120kg wherever they are.

16) The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon is: (CSS 2011)

(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

17): The earth rotates 011 its axis from_

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (d)
The Earth rotates from the west towards east. As viewed from North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.

18): Name two planets which revolve around their axis from east to west

(a) Earth and Venus
(b) Mars and Earth
(c) Venus and Uranus
(d) Mars and Uranus
Answer: (c)
Planets have no light of their own and all of them expect Venus and Uranus, rotate upon their axis from west to east.

19) Our sun is classified as (CSS 2012)

(a) A Blue giant
(b) A Yellow dwarf
(c) Supernova
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star, or G dwarf star, or more imprecisely, a yellow dwarf. Actually, the sun — like other G-type stars — is white, but appears yellow through Earth’s atmosphere. Stars generally get bigger as they grow older

20): Name the planet which revolve approximately 90 degree with its orbital plane_.

(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
Unlike any other planet, Uranus rotates on its side. That is, the rotation axis is tilted approximately 90 degrees relative to the planet’s orbital plane.

21): The hottest planet of our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Earth
Answer: (b)
Venus’s thick atmosphere made up mainly of CO2 makes it the hottest planet in the solar system. Mercury is colder because it’s atmosphere is thin.

22): Which of the following constellation contains Pole Star?

(a) Orion
(b) Ursa Major
(c) Ursa Minor
(d) Scorpio
Answer: (b)

23): All the stars appear to move from

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (c)
Every day, the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west. Actually, these celestial objects aren’t moving that fast, but Earth is. It spins on its axis from west to east approximately every 24 hours.
Because we are standing on Earth’s surface, we move along with it. To us, it appears as if everything in the sky is moving from east to west.

24): The body burning like a star and coming towards the earth

(a) Comet
(b) Meteor
(c) Ceres
(d) Satellites
Answer: (b)
Fleeting trails of light are called meteors or shooting stars and they are created by small particles, some no bigger than a grain of rice, as they are completely burned up high in the atmosphere: about 100 km (or 60 miles) above the Earth. They are over literally in the blink of an eye. Space debris is collectively termed meteoroids, those larger fragments that reach the ground are called meteorites. Very big meteoroids are also known as asteroids. If one collides with Earth it would cause a major catastrophe.

25) Which of the following is not true?

(a) Planets rotate on their own axis.
(b) Planets do not emit light.
(c) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky
(d) Most of the planets have rings around them.
Answer: (d)

26) Which is the brightest planet?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth. Venus can often be seen within a few hours after sunset or before sunrise as the brightest object in the sky (other than the moon)

27) The stars in space are ___.

(a) Uniformly spread out.
(b) Distributed completely at random
(c) Chiefly in the Milky Way
(d) Mostly contained within widely separated galaxies
Answer: (d)

28) “Black holes” refer to: (CSS 2009)

(a) Hole occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing objects of high density
(d) Collapsing of low density
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)

29) The Milky Way is _____.

( a) a gas cloud in the solar system
(b) a gas cloud in the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(c) the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(d) a nearby galaxy
Answer: (c)

30) Relative to the center of our galaxy, ____.

( a) its starts are stationary
(b) its stars move entirely at random
(c) its stars revolve
(d) Population I starts are stationary and Population II star revolve
Answer: (c)

31) Evidence of various kinds suggests that at the center of our galaxy is a ___.

( a) Quasar
(b) Pulsar
(c) Neutron star
(d) Black hole
Answer: (d)
A supermassive black hole (SMBH) is the largest type of black hole, in the order of hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses (M☉), and is found in the centre of almost all currently known massive galaxies. In the case of the Milky Way, the SMBH corresponds with the location of Sagittarius A*

32) A radio telescope is basically a (an) __.

(a) device for magnifying radio waves
(b) Telescope remotely controlled by radio
(c) Directional antenna connected to a sensitive radio receiver
(d) Optical telescope that uses electronic techniques to produce an image
Answer: (c)
Radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system that is used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. Because radio wavelengths are much longer than those of visible light, radio telescopes must be very large in order to attain the resolution of optical telescopes.
The first radio telescope, built in 1937 by Grote Reber of Wheaton

33) Sun is a: (CSS 2011)

(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Satellite
(d) Aurora
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
The Sun (or Sol), is the star at the centre of our solar system
The Sun is by far the largest object in the solar system. It contains more than 99.8% of the total mass of the Solar System (Jupiter contains most of the rest).

34) The age of the solar system is (CSS 2011)

(a) 4.5 billion years
(b) 5.5 billion years
(c) 6.5 billion years
(d) 7.5 billion years
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
By studying several things, mostly meteorites, and using radioactive dating techniques, specifically looking at daughter isotopes, scientists have determined that the Solar System is 4.6 billion years old. Well, give or take a few million years. That age can be extended to most of the objects and material in the Solar System.

35) An eclipse of the sun occurs when (CSS 2011)

(a) The moon is between the sun and the earth
(b) The sun is between the earth and the moon
(c) The earth is between the sun and the moon
(d) The earth casts its shadow on the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

36) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS 2009)

(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolaus Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
Considered today to be the father of modern astronomy, Nicolaus Copernicus was born on February 19, 1473 in Torun, Poland.

37) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is: (CSS 2009)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 2 years
(d) 98 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days (87.969 to be exact), which means a single year is 88 Earth days – or the equivalent of about 0.241 Earth years. But here’s the thing. Because of Mercury’s slow rotation (once every 58.646 days) and its rapid orbital speed (47.362 km/s), one day on Mercury actually works out to 175.96 Earth days.

38) Primary cosmic rays are composed largely of very fast ___.

( a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (a)
Of primary cosmic rays, which originate outside of Earth’s atmosphere, about 99% are the nuclei (stripped of their electron shells) of well-known atoms, and about 1% are solitary electrons (similar to beta particles). Of the nuclei, about 90% are simple protons, i. e. hydrogen nuclei; 9% are alpha particles, identical to helium nuclei, and 1% are the nuclei of heavier elements, called HZE ions

39) Cosmic rays ____.

(a) Circulate freely through space
(b) are trapped in our galaxy by electric fields
(c) are trapped in our galaxy by magnetic fields
(d) are trapped in our galaxy by gravitational fields
Answer: (c)

40) The red shift in the spectral lines of light reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ______.

( a) are moving closer to one another
(b) are moving farther apart from one another
(c) are in rapid rotation
(d) Consist predominantly of red giant stars
Answer: (b)

41) According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, the universe _____.

( a) Must be expanding
(b) Must be contracting
(c) Must be either expanding or contracting
(d) May be neither expanding nor contracting
Answer: (c)

42) Supernova explosions have no connection with _______.

( a) The formation of heavy elements
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) Pulsars
(d) Quasars
Answer: (d)

43) Current ideas suggest that what is responsible for the observed properties of a quasar is a massive ____.

(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Spiral galaxy
(d) Star cluster
Answer: (b)

44) The age of the universe is probably in the neighborhood of ______.

( a) 15 million years
(b) 4 ½ billion years
(c) 15 billion years
(d) 30 billion years
Answer: (c)

45) The term big bang refers to ___.

( a) the origin of the universe
(b) the ultimate fate of the universe
(c) a supernova explosion
(d) the formation of a quasar
Answer: (a)

46) The elements heavier than hydrogen and helium of which the planets are composed probably came from the __.
( a) Sun
(b) Debris of supernova explosions that occurred before the solar system came into being
(c) Big bang
(d) Big crunch
Answer: (b)

47) Today the universe apparently contains ____.

( a) Only matter
(b) Only antimatter
(c) Equal amounts of matter and antimatter
(d) Slightly more matter than antimatter
Answer: (a)

48) Radiation from the early history of the universe was Doppler-shifted by the expansion of the universe until today it is in the form of _______.

( a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Infrared waves
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (d)

49) Present evidence suggests that most of the mass of the universe is in the form of ______.

( a) Dark matter
(b) Luminous matter
(c) Cosmic rays
(d) Black holes
Answer: (a)

50) It is likely that the planets, satellites, and other members of the solar system were formed ________.

(a) Together with the sun
(b) Later than the sun from material it ejected
(c) Later than the sun from material it captured from space
(d) Elsewhere and were captured by the sun
Answer: (a)

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Kurt Waldheim Quiz

Kurt Waldheim Quiz Questions

1. When was Kurt Waldheim secretary general of United Nations?
a) 1972-1981
b) 1945-1949
c) 1951-1960
d) 1961-1970

2. When was Kurt Waldheim born?
a) 12 January 1919
b) 7 April 1914
c) 17 July 1918
d) 21 December 1918

3. Where was Kurt Waldheim born?
a) Linz
b) Graz
c) Sankt Andra-Worden
d) Weiz

4. When did Kurt Waldheim lead Austria’s first delegation to United Nations?
a) 1953
b) 1957
c) 1955
d) 1954

5. Where did Kurt Waldheim represent Austria as minister plenipotentiary?
a) Canada
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) Australia

6. What was Kurt Waldheim’s post in 1968-1970?
a) Attorney General
b) Prime Minister
c) Foreign Minister
d) Home Secretary

7. When was Kurt Waldheim ambassador to United Nations?
a) 1952-1954
b) 1956-1958, 1961-1962
c) 1964-1968, 1970-1971
d) 1988-1992

8. When was Kurt Waldheim President of Austria?
a) 1982-1984
b) 1986-1992
c) 1948-1952
d) 1994-1996

9. When did Kurt Waldheim die?
a) 12 February 2000
b) 14 June 2007
c) 18 September 2009
d) 28 November 1995

10. Where did Kurt Waldheim die?
a) Wolfsberg
b) Vienna
c) Hallein
d) Bruck

Kurt Waldheim Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Kurt Waldheim secretary general of United Nations?
a) 1972-1981

2. When was Kurt Waldheim born?
d) 21 December 1918

3. Where was Kurt Waldheim born?
c) Sankt Andra-Worden

4. When did Kurt Waldheim lead Austria’s first delegation to United Nations?
c) 1955

5. Where did Kurt Waldheim represent Austria as minister plenipotentiary?
a) Canada

6. What was Kurt Waldheim’s post in 1968-1970?
c) Foreign Minister

7. When was Kurt Waldheim ambassador to United Nations?
c) 1964-1968, 1970-1971

8. When was Kurt Waldheim President of Austria?
b) 1986-1992

9. When did Kurt Waldheim die?
b) 14 June 2007

10. Where did Kurt Waldheim die?
b) Vienna

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities, Political Science