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فیڈرل پبلک سروس کمیشن اردو پیپر 2019 سوالات مع درست جوابات

فیڈرل پبلک سروس کمیشن اردو پیپر 2019
سوالات مع درست جوابات

1- الحمد لله، قاسمی کا افسانہ ہے ۔
2- بجنگ آمد کے مصنف کرنل محمد خان ہیں ۔
3- ولی سے اقبال تک، سید عبداللہ کی تصنیف ہے ۔
4- اداس نسلیں، عبداللہ حسین کا ناول ہے ۔
5- آگ کا دریا، قرۃ العین حیدر کا ناول ہے ۔
6- ترفع، لانجائنس کا نظریہ ہے ۔
7- اعیان، افلاطون کا نظریہ ہے ۔
8- المیہ کے 6 اجزا ہیں ۔
9- شعلہ گل، قاسمی کا شعری مجموعہ ہے ۔
10۔خیامِ اردو، ریاض خیر آبادی کو کہا جاتا ہے ۔
11- نیا قانون، منٹو کا افسانہ ہے ۔
12- ٹوبہ ٹیک سنگھ، منٹو کا افسانہ ہے ۔
13- غدار، کرشن چندر کا ناول ہے ۔
14- مزدور شاعر، احسان دانش ہے ۔
15- یادگار غالب، حالی کی تصنیف ہے ۔
16- احمد فراز کوہاٹ سے تھے۔
17-تہذیب الاخلاق، سرسید کا رسالہ ہے ۔
18- الفاروق، شبلی نعمانی کی تصنیف ہے ۔
19- علامہ اقبال کے پیر مولانا روم تھے۔
20- تزکیہ نفس (کیتھارسس) ارسطو کا نظریہ ہے ۔
21- مقدمہ شعر و شاعری حالی کی تنقیدی کتاب ہے ۔
22- گلِ نغمہ، فراق کا شعری مجموعہ ہے ۔
23- چھمی، آنگن کا کردار ہے ۔
24- سوا سیر گیہوں، پریم چند کا افسانہ ہے ۔
25- افلاطون شاعری کا مخالف تھا۔
26- نقل کا نظریہ ارسطو کا ہے ۔
27- بوطیقا کے 5 حصے (ابواب) ہیں ۔
28- مولا، قاسمی کے افسانے گنڈاسا کا کردار ہے ۔
29- ڈاکٹر سلیم اختر محقق و نقاد تھے۔
30- المامون شبلی کی تصنیف ہے ۔
31- جست، مونث ہے ۔
32- چشمہ، مذکر ہے ۔
33- چشم، مونث ہے ۔
34- بوطیقا کا دوسرا باب المیہ سے متعلق ہے ۔
35- اقبال نے افلاطون کی مخالفت کی ہے ۔
36- حالی پابند شاعری کے مخالف نہیں تھے
یہی وجہ ہے کہ ان کی اپنی ساری شاعری بھی پابند شاعری ہی ہے ۔
البتہ مغرب سے متاثر ہو کر آزاد شاعری کو ترجیح دیتے تھے۔
37- قوتِ عشق سے ہر پست کو بالا کر دے، جواب شکوہ کا مصرع ہے ۔
38- عشق دم جبریل۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔ مسجد قرطبہ از اقبال کا شعر ہے ۔
39- سروری زیبا فقط ۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔۔ خضر راہ از اقبال کا شعر ہے۔
40- لان جائی نس نے علویت کے 5 مخرج بتائے ہیں ۔
41- دل ہی تو ہے نہ سنگ و خشت۔۔۔۔۔ غالب کا مصرع ہے ۔
42- احمد فراز نے پشاور سے تعلیم حاصل کی۔
43- احمد فراز پشاور یونی ورسٹی میں لیکچرار ہوئے۔
44- یہ نمایش سراب کی سی ہے ۔۔۔۔ میر کا مصرع ہے۔

فیڈرل پبلک سروس کمیشن اردو پیپر 2019 سوالات مع درست جوابات Read More »

Past Papers

Environmental Science MCQs | Sustainable Development Issues

1) The expansion on PQLI is
(a) Physical Quality of Life index
(b) Physical Quantity of Life Index
(c) Product Quality Lifecycle Implementation
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

2) Birth rate is called
(a) Mortality
(b) Vital index
(c) Natality
(d) Viability
Answer: (c)

3) Death rate of the population
(a) Mortality
(b) Viability
(c) Natality
(d) Vitality
Answer: (a)

4) The Anthrax disease is caused by
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Helminthes
Answer: (b)

5) Superbugs are
(a) Synthetic bug
(b) Bacteria
(c) Radio nucleotide
(d) Industries
Answer: (b)

6) Salmonellosis is a disease related to consumption of
(a) Chicken
(b) Eggs
(c) Mutton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)

7) Causative organisms of Malaria
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Virus
Answer: (c)

8) What is ‘Black Lung?”
(a) Occupational Hazard to the miners
(b) Occupational Hazard to navigators
(c) Occupational Hazard to pesticide applicators.
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

9) What is Carcinogen?
(a) Drugs for curing infectious disease
(b) Drugs used for curing cancer
(c) Cancer causing agent
(d) Food colorants
Answer: (c)

10) Infection of HIV is usually detected by which test
(a) Elisa test
(b) Hybridization
(c) Gram staining
(d) None
Answer: (a)

11) The destruction of habitat of plants and animals is called
(a) Endemism
(b) Endangered species
(c) Habitat loss
(d) Flood
Answer: (c)

12) Zoos are examples for
(a) In-situ conservation
(b) in-vivo conservation
(c) ex-situ conservation
(d) ex vivo conservation
Answer: (c)

13) The first national park of Pakistan
(a) Lulusar-Dudipatsar National Park
(b) Shandure-Phander National Park
(c) Lal Suhanra National Park
(d) Pir Lasura National Park
Answer: (c)

14) Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro (1992) resulted in
(a) Compilation of Red list
(b) Establishment of biosphere reserves
(c) Conservation of biodiversity
(d) IUCN
Answer: (c)

15) Some species of plants and animals are extremely rare and may occur only at a few locations are called
(a) Endemic
(b) Endangered
(c) Vulnerable
(d) Threatened
Answer: (b)

16) The drug morphine is extracted from …………… plant
(a) Cocoa
(b) Belladonna
(c) Opium Poppy
(d) Tannin
Answer: (c)

17) …………….. species is known as Azadirachta Indica
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Jackfruit
(d) Banana
Answer: (a)

18) ……………….. tree is known as ‘flame of the forest’?
(a) Ziziphus
(b) Butea monosperma
(c) Jackfruit
(d) Pongamia
Answer: (b)

19) Which tree is known as Coral tree?
(a) Quercus
(b) Dipterocarps
(c) Erythrina
(d) Ziziphus
Answer: (c)

20) Which plants die after flowering?
(a) Lotus
(b) Bamboo
(c) Chrysanthemum
(d) Butea
Answer: (b)

21) Out of 4,100 mammal species in the world, Pakistan is home to
(a) 209
(b) 188
(c) 319
(d) 566
Answer: (b)

22) The four mammals known to have so far disappeared from Pakistan are the tiger (Panthera Tigris), swamp deer (Cervus duvaucelii), lion (Panthera Leo) and the.
(a) White Rhinoceros
(b) One-horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis)
(c) Elephant
(d) Hog deer
Answer: (b)

23) ……………….. is a marine tortoise which shows the unique phenomenon ‘Arribada’
(a) Olive Ridley
(b) Star Tortoise
(c) Travancore Tortoise
(d) b & c
Answer: (a)

24) Largest reptile in the world
(a) Dragon
(b) Anaconda
(c) Crocodile
(d) Python
Answer: (b)

25) In which year Broghil Valley (KPK) was declared as National Park?
(a) 1988
(b) 1996
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
Answer: (c)

26) The total population of Snow Leopard in Pakistan is estimated around
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 300
(d) 188
Answer: (c)

27) In Pakistan, mangroves forests covered 600,000 hectares but now that has been reduced to
(a) 185,000 hectares
(b) 75,000 hectares
(c) 85,000 hectares
(d) 115,000 hectares
Answer: (b)

28) In which year Kala Chitta was declared as National Park?
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2012
Answer: (b)

29) The Red Data book which lists endangered species is maintained by
(a) UNO
(b) WHO
(c) IUCN
(d) WWF
Answer: (c)

30) The largest national park in the world meeting the IUCN definition is the Northeast Greenland National Park, which was established in
(a) 1973
(b) 1974.
(c) 1976
(d) 1999
Answer: (b)

31) In which year Lal Suhanra was declared as National Park?
(a) 1972
(b) 1988
(c) 1995
(d) 2008
Answer: (a)

32) Flag ship species of Deosai National Park (Skardu) sanctuary
(a) Tiger
(b) Peacock
(c) Brown Bears
(d) Rhino
Answer: (c)

33) Herpetology is a branch of Science which deals with
(a) Aves
(b) Mammals
(c) Reptiles
(d) Fishes
Answer: (c)

34) “Silent Spring” is a well-known book written by
(a) John Miller
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Rachel Carson
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

35) First Biosphere reserve in Pakistan
(a) Lal Suhanra National Park
(b) Kirthar National Park
(c) Chitral Gol National Park
(d) Chiltan Hazarganji, National Park
Answer: (a)

36) Bears are usually hunted and killed for their
(a) Teeth
(b) Skin
(c) Gall bladder
(d) Nails
Answer: (b)

37) Coral reefs in Pakistan can be seen in
(a) Atcola Island
(b) Churna (near Karachi coast)
(c) Pasni and near Jevani
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

38) Which of the following is an extinct species?
(a) Tiger
(b) Lion
(c) Dodo
(d) Ostrich
Answer: (c)

39) Black Buck is a
(a) Goat
(b) Deer
(c) Butterfly
(d) Bird
Answer: (b)

40) Gharial is a
(a) Crocodile
(b) Cobra
(c) Tortoise
(d) Frog
Answer: (a)

41) ——— is one of the most endangered species of Pakistani birds
(a) Bee eater
(b) Chakoor
(c) Owl
(d) Houbara bustard
Answer: (d)

42) Pangolins feed on
(a) Ants
(b) Fruits
(c) Leaves
(d) Roots
Answer: (a)

43) Many wild plant and animals are on the verge of extinction due to
(a) Habitat destruction
(b) Climatic changes
(c) Non availability of food
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

44) The first global environmental protection treaty “The Montreal Protocol” was signed on Sept. 26.
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1981
(d) 1987
Answer: (d)

45) Animals and plants are best protected in
(a) Zoos
(b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks
(d) Sanctuaries
Answer: (c)

46) The Native Place of Redwood trees?
(a) Australia
(b) Amazon
(c) California
(d) Thailand
Answer: (c)

47) Which of the following pulls people to urban areas?
(a) Declining agricultural jobs
(b) Lack of land to grow food
(c) Better health care
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

48) Due to the urban population exploding in developing countries, they will need to build the equivalent of a city with more than 1 million people every __ for the next 25 years.
(a) Day
(b) Week
(c) Month
(d) Three months
(e) Year
Answer: (b)

49) Which of the following statements is false?
(a) The shift in poverty is moving rapidly from the city to the country.
(b) Developing countries are currently urbanizing faster than developed countries.
(c) Urbanization varies throughout the world but is increasing everywhere
(d) The general population growth also contributes to urban growth
(e) The shift in poverty is moving rapidly from the country to the city
Answer: (a)

50) Those who migrate and find jobs in cities can expect all of the following, except
(a) Long hours and low wages
(b) Dangerous machinery
(c) Health and retirement benefits
(d) Noise pollution
(e) High crime rate
Answer: (c)

Environmental Science MCQs | Sustainable Development Issues Read More »

MCQs / Q&A, Test, World

World General Knowledge MCQs (Solved) Geographical Epithets (Countries and Cities)

Geographical MCQs (Countries)

1. Which country is called the ‘Buffer state of Asia’?
(a) Afghanistan
(b) Pakistan
(c) India
(d) China
Answer: a

2. Which country is called ‘Land of fertile fields’?
(a) Algeria
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Pakistan
(d) England
Answer: a

3. Which country is called ‘Island continent’?
(a) Austria
(b) Australia
(c) US
(d) England
Answer: b

4. Which country is called ‘Land of golden fleece’?
(a) US
(b) England
(c) Australia
(d) Germany
Answer: c

5. Which country is called ‘Remnant of a mighty empire’?
(a) Australia
(b) Austria
(c) India
(d) Iraq
Answer: b

6. Which country is called ‘Isle of June’?
(a) Bahamas
(b) Bahrain
(c) Belgium
(d) Cuba
Answer: a

7. Which country is called ‘Isle of pearls’?
(a) Egypt
(b) Iraq
(c) Iran
(d) Bahrain
Answer: d

8. Which country is called the ‘Land of Golden Fibre’?
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Iran
(d) Pakistan
Answer: b

9. Which country is called ‘Cockpit of Europe’?
(a) Belgium
(b) Canada
(c) Colombia
(d) England
Answer: a

10. Which country is called ‘Crossroads of Europe’?
(a) Belgium
(b) Canada
(c) France
(d) Egypt
Answer: a

11. Which country is called ‘Land of lilies’?
(a) Canada
(b) Belgium
(c) Norway
(d) Sweden
Answer: a

12. Which country is called ‘Land of contrasts’?
(a) Canada
(b) Cuba
(c) Colombia
(d) England
Answer:. c

13. Which country is called ‘Pearl of Antilles’?
(a) England
(b) Cuba
(c) Egypt
(d) Denmark
Answer: b

14. Which country is called ‘Homeland of the Viking Empire’?
(a) Cuba
(b) England
(c) Denmark
(d) US
Answer: c

15. Which country is called ‘Gift of the Nile’?
(a) Iran
(b) Egypt
(c) Finland
(d) Iraq
Answer: b

16. Which country is called ‘Land of the Queen of Sheba’?
(a) Egypt
(b) Yemen
(c) Ghana
(d) Austria
Answer: b

17. Which country is called ‘Land of thousand lakes’?
(a) France
(b) Finland
(c) China
(d) Iraq
Answer: b

18. Which country is called ‘Key to the Mediterranean?
(a) Gibraltar
(b) Egypt
(c) Indonesia
(d) Iraq
Answer: a

19. Which country is called ‘Pillars of Hercules’?
(a) Gibraltar
(b) China
(c) Egypt
(d) Afghanistan
Answer: a

20. Which country is called ‘Whiteman’s grave’?
(a) Guinea
(b) Haiti
(c) Iraq
(d) Afghanistan
Answer: a

21. Which country is called ‘Island of Hispaniola?
(a) Hong Kong
(b) Haiti
(c) Iceland
(d) Malta
Answer: b

22. Which is called ‘The sorrow of China’?
(a) Hwang Hoo
(b) Beijing
(c) Peking
(d) Shangai
Answer: a

23. Which country is called ‘Land of thousand islands’?
(a) China
(b) Nepal
(c) Indonesia
(d) Cyprus
Answer: c

24. Which country is called ‘Site of ancient civilisations’?
(a) Iraq
(b) Iran
(c) Egypt
(d) India
Answer: a

25. Which country is called ‘Emerald Island’?
(a) Japan
(b) Ireland
(c) Iraq
(d) Iran
Answer: b

26. Which country is called ‘Great Britain of the Pacific’?
(a) Ireland
(b) Japan
(c) Korea
(d) China
Answer: b

27. Which country is called the ‘Land of rising sun’?
(a) Japan
(b) China
(c) Norway
(d) Sweden
Answer:. a

28. Which country is called the ‘Land of morning calm’?
(a) China
(b) South Korea
(c) Pakistan
(d) Nepal
Answer: b

29. Which country is called the ‘Land of milk and honey’?
(a) Iran
(b) Iraq
(c) Lebanon
(d) Nepal
Answer: c

30. Which country is called the ‘Land of amber’?
(a) Korea
(b) Lithuania
(c) Lebanon
(d) Nepal
Answer: b

31. Which country is called ‘George Cross Island’?
(a) Korea
(b) Malta
(c) China
(d) Nepal
Answer: b

32. Which country is called ‘Land of rice and teak’?
(a) Myanmar
(b) Korea
(c) China
(d) Nepal
Answer: a

33. Which country is called the ‘Land of mountains’?
(a) US
(b) Nepal
(c) China
(d) Korea
Answer: b

34. Which country is called ‘Land of Druk-yul’?
(a) Korea
(b) China
(c) Bhutan
(d) Malta
Answer: c

35. Which country is called the ‘Flower garden of Europe’?
(a) Netherlands
(b) Switzerland
(c) US
(d) England
Answer: a

36. Which country is called the ‘Britain of the South’?
(a) Norway
(b) New Zealand
(c) Canada
(d) Austria
Answer: b

37. Which country is called the ‘Land of Cakes’?
(a) Scotland
(b) England
(c) Netherlands
(d) None of these
Answer: a

38. Which country is called ‘Land of the midnight sun’?
(a) Sweden
(b) Norway
(c) Denmark
(d) Canada
Answer: b

39. Which country is called the ‘Land of pure people’?
(a) Norway
(b) Pakistan
(c) China
(d) Korea
Answer: b

40. Which country is called ‘Horn of Africa’?
(a) Norway
(b) China
(c) Ghana
(d) Somalia
Answer: d

41. Which country is called ‘Switzerland of Africa’?
(a) Swaziland
(b) Mozambique
(c) South Africa
(d) Somalia
Answer: a

42. Which country is called the ‘Playground of Europe’?
(a) Switzerland
(b) Thailand
(c) Egypt
(d) China
Answer: a

43. Which country is called the ‘Land of white elephants’?
(a) Korea
(b) Thailand
(c) US
(d) Russia
Answer: b

44. Which country is called the ‘Land of free people’?
(a) Thailand
(b) Korea
(c) China
(d) Japan
Answer: a

45. Which country is called the ‘Land of Smiles’?
(a) Thailand
(b) US
(c) India
(d) South Africa
Answer: a

Geographical MCQs (Cities)

46. Which city is called the ‘Granite city’?
(a) Aberdeen (Scotland)
(b) London
(c) Tehran
(d) Baghdad
Answer: a

47. Which city is called the ‘City of Eagles’?
(a) Sialkot
(b) Lahore
(c) Karachi
(d) None of these
Answer: a

48. Which city is called the ‘City of Golden Temple’?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Lahore
(c) Delhi
(d) Hassanabdal
Answer: a

49. Which city is called the ‘City of Water’?
(a) Venice
(b) Tehran
(c) Cairo
(d) Dhaka
Answer: a

50. Which city is called the ‘City of Angels’?
(a) Los Angeles
(b) London
(c) Delhi
(d) Baghdad
Answer: a

51. Which city is called the ‘Gateway to the East’?
(a) Beirut
(b) Bangkok
(c) Amritsar
(d) Cairo
Answer: a

52. Which city is called the ‘Little Pakistan’?
(a) Jeddah
(b) Bradford
(c) Chicago
(d) Dhaka
Answer: b

53. Which city is called the ‘City of bazaars’?
(a) Cairo
(b) Chicago
(c) Dhaka
(d) Amritsar
Answer: a

54. Which city is called the ‘Pyramid city’?
(a) Chicago
(b) Cairo
(c) London
(d) New York
Answer: b

55. Which city is called ‘City of space flights’?
(a) Cairo
(b) Lahore
(c) Cape Kennedy
(d) London
Answer: c

56. Which city is called the ‘Manchester of Pakistan’?
(a) Lahore
(b) Karachi
(c) Faisalabad
(d) Peshawar
Answer: c

57. Which city is called the ‘City of Conferences’?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Geneva
(c) Moscow
(d) London
Answer: b

58. Which city is called ‘City of Rams’?
(a) Guangzhou
(b) Multan
(c) Amritsar
(d) Colombo
Answer: a

59. Which city is called ‘Brasilia of Pakistan’?
(a) Karachi
(b) Islamabad
(c) Faisalabad
(d) Quetta
Answer: b

60. Which city is called the ‘Gateway of Pakistan’?
(a) Islamabad
(b) Karachi
(c) Multan
(d) Lahore
Answer: b

61. Which city is called the ‘City of Canals’?
(a) Venice
(b) Paris
(c) London
(d) None of these
Answer: a

62. Which city is called the ‘City of Palaces’?
(a) Lahore
(b) Mexico City
(c) Kiev
(d) Paris
Answer: b

63. Which city is called ‘Forbidden city’?
(a) Lhasa
(b) Moscow
(c) Rome
(d) Beruit
Answer: a

64. Which city is called the ‘Gateway of India’?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Agra
(c) Kolkata
(d) Hyderabad
64. a

65. Which city is called the ‘City of Cosmonauts’?
(a) New York
(b) Moscow
(c) Lahore
(d) Karachi
Answer: b

66. Which city is called the ‘City of skyscrapers’?
(a) Washington
(b) New York
(c) London
(d) Rome
Answer: b

67. Which city is called the ‘City of eternal spring’?
(a) New York
(b) Quito
(c) Rome
(d) Paris
Answer: b

68. Which city is called the ‘City of Popes’?
(a) Rome
(b) Vatican City
(c) London
(d) Cairo
Answer: b

69. Which city is called the ‘Land of seven hills’?
(a) Rome
(b) Venice
(c) Shiraz
(d) Baghdad
Answer: a

70. Which city is called the ‘The Golden Gate City’?
(a) San Francisco
(b) New York
(c) London
(d) Venice
Answer: a

71. Which city is called the ‘City of roses and nightingales’?
(a) Shiraz
(b) Rome
(c) Mumbai
(d) New York
Answer: a

72. Which city is called the ‘Queen of the Baltic’?
(a) Rome
(b) Stockholm
(c) Paris
(d) Karachi
Answer: b

73. Which city is called the ‘City of Gondolas’?
(a) Venice
(b) Rome
(c) Shiraz
(d) Lahore
Answer: A

 

World General Knowledge MCQs (Solved) Geographical Epithets (Countries and Cities) Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, World

Day by Day Current Affairs (March 30, 2019)

March 30, 2019
National Current Affairs

1. Pakistan, China warns against politicizing UN anti-terrorism regime

• Pakistan has warned that politicising the UN counterterrorism machinery would only compromise the integrity of the regime, as China also warned against `forcefully moving` a resolution in the UN Security Council.
• Speaking in a Security Council debate on `Preventing and Combating the Financing of Terrorism` on March 29, 2019, Pakistan`s Ambassador Maleeha Lodhi said that current structures like FATF and the 1267 Sanctions regimes should not be used as political tools by some to advance their geopolitical goals.
• `There is also a need to make these institutions more inclusive of the wider membership in their decision-making processes,` she added.
• On Thursday, Chinese Foreign Ministry spokesman Geng Shuang told a media briefing in Beijing that `forcefully moving` a resolution directly in the UNSC undermined the authority of the UN anti-terrorism committee.


2. Ex-IB chief Ijaz made federal minister

• Former chief of the Intelligence Bureau (IB), Brigadier (Retd) Ijaz Ahmed Shah MNA has been inducted as Federal Minister for Parliamentary Affairs.
• President Dr. Arif Alvi on March 29, 2019 accepted Prime Minister Imran Khan’s request to appoint Ijaz as the federal minister for parliamentary affairs
• He was elected MNA on PTI ticket from NA-118, Nankana Sahib-II in the last general elections held last year.
• The national security adviser’s position has been lying vacant since the PTI came to power.
• Ijaz Shah had served as Director General of the Intelligence Bureau (IB) from 2004 to 2008 in the government of former President General (Retd) Pervez Musharraf.


3. World Bank suspends water resource development project for Balochistan

• The World Bank on March 29, 2019 suspended the Integrated Water Resources Management and Development project for Balochistan over lack of progress in management and funds disbursement.
• In a statement, the WB offered to work with the Balochistan government over the next 30 days to restructure the scope and governance arrangements to more realistically deliver sustainable water management to the province.
• On June 28, 2016, the bank had approved a $200 million credit to strengthen the Balochistan government`s initiative for community-based water management for irrigation in the province.
• The project was designed to boost farmers` incomes through a new irrigation infrastructure and improved on-farm management and rangeland management. An associated objective was building the province`s capacity for long-term water resources planning.


4. Revised disaster response plan launched

• National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) on March 29, 2019 launched National Disaster Response Plan in collaboration with Asian Disaster Preparedness Centre the under Pakistan Resilience Partnership.
• The target of NDRP 2019is to mitigate damages from natural disasters. Speaking on the occasion, Minister of State for Parliamentary Affairs Engineer Ali Mohammad Khan said the government was well cognisant of the threats and challenges posed by climate change and impending disasters.


5. Ex-CJP Jillani wins exceIIence award for promoting justice

• Former chief justice of Pakistan (CJP) Tassaduq Hussain Jillani, who is officiating as an ad hoc judge at the International Court of Justice in The Haque, has been awarded `International Justice Excellence Award` for promoting justice at home and around the world.
• The ceremony to give the award was held at the International Institute for Justice, Netherlands. Mr Jillani was decorated for his outstanding contribution to the elevation of the principles of justice in Pakistan and the international community.
• Mr. Jillani came to prominence as the 21st chief justice of Pakistan for his landmark judgment on a Suo Motu notice on the Sept 22, 2013 bomb attack on a Peshawar church in which 81 people died.


March 30, 2019: International Current Affairs

6. Fears of no-deal BREXIT rise as MPs sink May`s proposal

• Lawmakers rejected Prime Minister Theresa May`s BREXIT deal for a third time on March 29, 2019, sounding its probable death knell and leaving Britain`s withdrawal from the European Union in turmoil on the very day it was supposed to quit the bloc.
• The decision to reject a stripped-down version of May`s divorce deal has left it totally unclear how, when or even whether Britain will leave the EU, and plunges the three-year BREXIT crisis to a deeper level of uncertainty.
• Within minutes of the vote, European Council President and summit chair Donald Tusk said EU leaders would meet on April 10 to discuss Britain`s departure from the bloc.
• A succession of European leaders said there was a very real chance Britain would now leave without a deal, a scenario that businesses fear would cause chaos for the world`s fifth-biggest economy.


7. KSA frees three women’s rights activists

• Saudi Arabia has temporarily released three of the women’s rights activists held in custody for almost a year, state media has said, following a court hearing in which the detainees alleged torture and sexual harassment during interrogation.
• The announcement by the SPA news agency on March 29, 2019 did not identify the three women but several reports named them as blogger Eman al-Nafjan, Aziza al-Youssef, a retired lecturer at King Saud University, and academic Rokaya al-Mohareb.


8. Chinese telescope collects more than 11M spectra

• China has released 11.25 million spectra of celestial objects acquired by the Large Sky Area Multi-Object Fiber Spectroscopic Telescope (LAMOST) to astronomers worldwide, according to the National Astronomical Observatories of China (NAOC) of the Chinese Academy of Sciences March 29, 2019.
• As the world’s largest spectral survey telescope, LAMOST marks the world’s first spectral survey project to obtain more than 10 million spectra. Spectra are key for astronomers to read celestial bodies’ chemical compositions, densities, atmospheres and magnetism. Among the released spectra, there are 9.37 million high-quality spectra, which is twice the total number of other astronomic surveys internationally. There are also 6.36 million stellar spectra, creating the largest stellar parameter catalog in the world. Finished in 2008, LAMOST began regular surveys in 2012. The telescope is located in NAOC’s Xinglong Observatory, in north China’s Hebei Province.The telescope can observe about 4,000 celestial bodies at one time. It can also help calculate the age of more than a million stars, providing basic data to study the evolution of our galaxy


9. Earth Hour being marked today

• ‘Earth Hour’ being marked all over the world on 30th March (today).
• People are on the frontlines of climate change. The Earth Hour reminds us that individual and global community actions can prove to be a milestone to transform the climate challenges and protect the generations to come.
• The lights of the Parliament will be switched off between 8:30pm to 9:30pm to show Parliament’s commitment of joining hands with the world for energy conservation, combating climate change and global warming.
• Pakistan’s Vision 2025 considered climate change as one of the top national priorities and provided a sound basis to integrate climate change budgeting into national development planning.


March 30, 2019: Sports Current Affairs

10. Australia win fourth ODI by six runs

• Australia pulled off a sensational last-over, six-run win despite a debut hundred by Pakistan`s Abid Ali and second career century by Mohammad Rizwan in the fourth one-day international in Dubai on March 29, 2019.
• Needing 278 to win, Pakistan came close to their target through Ali`s 112 and Rizwan`s 104 but in the end, the two hundred were in vain as they failed to score the required 17 runs off Marcus Stoinis`s last over.
• The win gives Australia a 4-0 lead with the last match to be played in Dubai on March 31, 2019.

Day by Day Current Affairs (March 30, 2019) Read More »

Current Affairs, Sports, World

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I)

1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.

2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins

3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.

5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.

6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.

7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.

8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes

9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.

10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.

11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.

13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.

14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.

16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.

17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.

18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)

19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)

22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)

23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)

24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)

25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)

26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)

27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.

28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)

29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.

30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)

32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)

33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)

34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.

35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)

36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)

37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)

38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)

39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)

40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)

41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)

42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)

43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)

44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)

46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)

47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)

48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.

49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)

50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I) Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Major Airlines of the World – Top 100 Airlines with Numbers of Flights Per DAy

  • Lufthansa German Airlines Germany
  • Aero-flot Airline – Russia
  • Pan American World Airways System – S.A.
  • Trans-world Airways – S.A.
  • Delta Airlines – S.A.
  • Thai Airways International – Thailand
  • Swissair – Switzerland
  • Emirates – A.E
  • Air-Ceylon – Sri Lanka
  • Iberia – Spain
  • Pakistan International Airlines – Pakistan
  • Braathens – Norway
  • Scandinavian Airlines System – Norway
  • KLM Royal Dutch – Netherlands
  • Royal Nepal Airlines – Nepal
  • Japan Airlines – Japan
  • All Nippon Airways – Japan
  • Alitalia – Italy
  • Ryanair – Ireland
  • Garuda Airways – Indonesia
  • Air-India – India
  • Cathay Pacific – Hong Kong
  • Air France – France
  • Finnair – Finland
  • Easy Jet – England
  • O.A.C. – England
  • Sabena – Belgium Qantas
  • Empire Airways – Australia
  • Araina Afghan Airlines – Afghanistan

 

Here is a list (as on 2020-04-03) of the 100 biggest airlines based on the number of departures (and not the number of passengers). The number of flights is the daily average for one week.

1 – American Airlines – 5961 flights every day
2 – Delta Air Lines – 4290 flights every day
3 – United Airlines – 4048 flights every day
4 – Southwest Airlines – 3795 flights every day
5 – Ryanair – 2151 flights every day
6 – easyJet – 1785 flights every day
7 – China Southern Airlines – 1781 flights every day
8 – China Eastern Airlines – 1716 flights every day
9 – IndiGo – 1665 flights every day
10 – Turkish Airlines – 1379 flights every day
11 – Air Canada – 1325 flights every day
12 – Air China – 1244 flights every day
13 – ANA – 1224 flights every day
14 – Alaska Airlines – 1119 flights every day
15 – LATAM Airlines – 1111 flights every day
16 – Air France – 1010 flights every day
17 – Aeroflot – 938 flights every day
18 – JetBlue Airways – 921 flights every day
19 – JAL – 825 flights every day
20 – British Airways – 782 flights every day
21 – Lufthansa – 720 flights every day
22 – KLM – 675 flights every day
23 – Qantas – 668 flights every day
24 – Shenzhen Airlines – 664 flights every day
25 – Gol – 660 flights every day
26 – Spirit Airlines – 646 flights every day
27 – Lion Air – 639 flights every day
28 – Wizz Air – 636 flights every day
29 – Vueling – 627 flights every day
30 – Azul – 620 flights every day
31 – Xiamen Airlines – 589 flights every day
32 – SpiceJet – 583 flights every day
33 – AirAsia – 583 flights every day
34 – WestJet – 575 flights every day
35 – AVIANCA – 575 flights every day
36 – Hainan Airlines – 568 flights every day
37 – Sichuan Airlines – 523 flights every day
38 – Shandong Airlines – 485 flights every day
39 – Saudia – 478 flights every day
40 – Emirates – 463 flights every day
41 – Air India – 457 flights every day
42 – Pegasus – 446 flights every day
43 – Garuda Indonesia – 439 flights every day
44 – Qatar Airways – 429 flights every day
45 – Wings Air – 426 flights every day
46 – Volaris – 398 flights every day
47 – Alitalia – 393 flights every day
48 – Aeromexico – 390 flights every day
49 – S7 Airlines – 389 flights every day
50 – Air New Zealand – 383 flights every day
51 – Thai AirAsia – 370 flights every day
52 – Frontier Airlines – 362 flights every day
53 – Malaysia Airlines – 361 flights every day
54 – Iberia – 356 flights every day
55 – Virgin Australia – 355 flights every day
56 – Vietnam Airlines – 353 flights every day
57 – Batik Air – 352 flights every day
58 – Ethiopian Airlines – 350 flights every day
59 – Jetstar – 350 flights every day
60 – Spring Airlines – 348 flights every day
61 – VietJet Air – 347 flights every day
62 – Philippine Airlines – 343 flights every day
63 – SAS – 335 flights every day
64 – Ravn Alaska – 334 flights every day
65 – Juneyao Airlines – 323 flights every day
66 – TAP Portugal – 313 flights every day
67 – Cebu Pacific Air – 310 flights every day
68 – Gestair – 307 flights every day
69 – Eurowings – 305 flights every day
70 – Shanghai Airlines – 302 flights every day
71 – Aer Lingus – 299 flights every day
72 – GoAir – 295 flights every day
73 – Citilink – 293 flights every day
74 – LOT – Polish Airlines – 281 flights every day
75 – Beijing Capital Airlines – 276 flights every day
76 – Interjet – 274 flights every day
77 – Aerolineas Argentinas – 273 flights every day
78 – Cape Air – 259 flights every day
79 – South African Airways – 255 flights every day
80 – Lucky Air – 253 flights every day
81 – Sriwijaya Air – 252 flights every day
82 – Copa Airlines – 251 flights every day
83 – Tianjin Airlines – 251 flights every day
84 – Norwegian Air Shuttle – 243 flights every day
85 – Hawaiian Airlines – 241 flights every day
86 – SWISS – 240 flights every day
87 – Allegiant Air – 236 flights every day
88 – Etihad Airways – 232 flights every day
89 – Austrian – 229 flights every day
90 – Tropic Air – 226 flights every day
91 – Air Europa – 224 flights every day
92 – Finnair – 220 flights every day
93 – AirAsia India – 220 flights every day
94 – Cathay Pacific – 218 flights every day
95 – Jet2 – 216 flights every day
96 -Singapore Airlines – 211 flights every day
97 – Maya Island Air – 209 flights every day
98 -Vistara – 204 flights every day
99 -Jeju Air – 203 flights every day
100 – EgyptAir – 199 flights every day

Click HERE to see the Largest airlines in the world page on Wikipedia

Major Airlines of the World – Top 100 Airlines with Numbers of Flights Per DAy Read More »

General Knowledge, Uncategorized, World

List Of Country , Capital & Currencies Quiz

List Of Country , Capital & Currencies Quiz

1. The Currency of Antigua and Barbuda is – East Caribbean dollar

2. The Capital of Andorra is – Andorra la Vella

3. The Capital of Belorussian ruble is – Belorussian

4. The Capital of the Country Belize is – Belmopan

5. The Currency of Bhutan is – Ngultrum

6. The Country Name of the Capital Sarajevo is – Bosnia and Herzegovina

7. The Capital of Brunei is – Bandar Seri Begawan

8. The Capital of Sofia is – Bulgaria

9. The Capital of Burkina Faso is – Ouagadougou

10. The Currency of Phnom Penh is – Riel

11. The Country of Yaounde is – Cameroon

12. The Currency of Ottawa is – Canadian dollar

13. The Country of Bangui is – Central African Republic

14. The Capital of Chad is – N’Djamena

15. The Currency of Santiago is – Chilean Peso

16. The Currency of Beijing is – Yuan/Renminbi

17. The Country of Colombian Peso is – Colombia

18. The Currency of Brazzaville is – CFA Franc

19. The Capital of Congolese franc is – Kinshasa

20. The Capital of Yamoussoukro is – Cote d’Ivoire

21. The Currency of Croatia is – Kuna

22. The Capital of Cuba is – Havana

23. The Country of Cyprus pound is – Cyprus

24. The Capital of Prague is – Czech Republic

25. The Capital of Copenhagen is – Denmark

26. The Currency of Djibouti is – Djibouti franc

27. The Capital of Prague East Caribbean dollar is – Roseau

28. The Capital of Dominican Republic is – Santo Domingo

29. The Currency of East Timor is – U.S. dollar

30. The Country of Egyptian pound is – Egypt

31. The Capital of El Salvador is – San Salvador

32. The Country of Malabo is – Equatorial Guinea

33. The Currency of Asmara is – Nakfa

34. The Country of Tallinn is – Estonia

35. The Country of Addis Ababa is – Ethiopia

36. The Currency of Suva is – Fiji dollar

37. The Country of Helsinki is – Finland

38. The Currency of France is – Euro

39. The Country of Libreville is – Gabon

40. The Country of Banjul is – The Gambia

41. The Capital of Georgia is – Tbilisi

42. The Capital of Germany is – Berlin

43. The Capital of Ghana is – Accra

44. The Country of Athens is – Greece

45. The Currency of Saint George’s is – East Caribbean dollar

46. The Capital of Guatemala City is – Guatemala

47. The Currency of Conakry is – Guinean franc

48.The Country of Bissau is – Guinea-Bissau

49. The Capital of Guyana is – Georgetown

50. The Country of Port-au-Prince is – Haiti

51. The Capital of Indonesia is – Jakarta

52. The Capital of Honduras is – Tegucigalpa

53. The Currency of Budapest is – Forint

54. The Capital of Icelandic króna is – Reykjavik

55. The Currency of Tehran is – Rial

56. The Currency of Baghdad is – Iraqi Dinar

57. The Capital of Dublin is – Ireland

58. The Capital of Israel is – Jerusalem

59. The Currency of Kingston is – Jamaican dollar

60. The Capital of Jordanian dinar is – Amman

61. The Currency of Kazakhstan is – Tenge

62. The Capital of Kenya shilling is – Nairobi

63. The Country of Tarawa Atoll is – Kiribati

64. The Currency of Pyongyang is – Won

65. The Country of Pristina is – Kosovo

66. The Currency of Kuwait City is – Kuwaiti dinar

67. The Country of Bishkek is – Kyrgyzstan

68. The Capital of Laos is – Vientiane

69. The Currency of Latviis – Lats

70. The Currency of Beirut is – Lebanese pound

71. The Country of Maseru is – Lesotho

72. The Currency of Monrovia is – Liberian dollar

73. The Country of Tripoli is – Libya

74. The Currency of Liechtenstein is – Swiss franc

75. The Capital of Lithuania is – Vilnius

76. The Currency of Luxembourg is – Euro

77. The Capital of Macedonia is – Skopje

78. The Country of Antananarivo is – Madagascar

79. The Currency of Lilongwe is – Kwacha

80. The Capital of Malaysia is – Kuala Lumpur

81. The Country of Rufiya is – Maldives

82. The Currency of Bamako is – CFA Franc

83. The Currency of Valletta is – Maltese lira

84.The Country of Nouakchott is – Mauritania

85.The Capital of Port Louis is – Mauritius

86. The Currency of Mexico City is – Mexican peso

87. The Country of Palikir is – Micronesia

88. The Capital of Moldova is – Chisinau

89. The Currency of Monaco is – Euro

90. The Country of Ulaanbaatar is – Mongolia

91. The Capital of Montenegro is – Podgorica

92. The Currency of Rabat is – Dirham

93. The Capital of Maputo is – Mozambique

94. The Currency of Rangoon is – Kyat

95. The Country of Windhoek is – Namibia

96. The Country of Australian dollar is – Nauru

97. The Currency of Kathmandu is – Nepalese rupee

98. The Country of Amsterdam is – Netherlands

99. The Currency of Wellington is – New Zealand dollar

100. The Capital of Gold cordoba is – Managua

List Of Country , Capital & Currencies Quiz Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, World

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability

The universe, Galaxy, Light Year, Solar System, Sun, Earth, Astronomical System of Units

1) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
In terms of mass, volume, and surface area, Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System by a wide margin.
Size and Mass:
Jupiter’s mass, volume, surface area and mean circumference are 1.8981 x 1027 kg, 1.43128 x 1015 km3, 6.1419 x 1010 km2, and 4.39264 x 105 km respectively. To put that in perspective, Jupiter diameter is roughly 11 times that of Earth, and 2.5 the mass of all the other planets in the Solar System combined.

2) The universe is ———-. (CSS 1996)

(a) Stationary
(b) Expanding
(c) Contracting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In June 2016, NASA and ESA scientists reported that the universe was found to be expanding 5% to 9% faster than thought earlier, based on studies using the Hubble Space Telescope

3) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) . 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) . 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Moon has no atmosphere. None. That’s why astronauts have to wear their spacesuits when they get outside of their spacecraft on the surface of the Moon.
Atmosphere of the Moon might be electro statically levitated moon dust. These tiny particles are constantly leaping up and down off the surface of the Moon.

4) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?

(a) Edwin Hubble
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar
(d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: (a)
The Hubble Space Telescope was named after astronomer Edwin Powell Hubble (1889–1953), who made some of the most important discoveries in modern astronomy. Dr. Hubble determined that the farther a galaxy is from Earth, the faster it appears to move away. This notion of an “expanding” universe formed the basis of the Big Bang theory, which states that the universe began with an intense burst of energy at a single moment in time — and has been expanding ever since.

5) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?

(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer: (a)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn.

6) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer: (c)
Venus is the only planet that rotates clockwise. Venus (radius 3,760.4 miles) is similar to Earth (radius 3,963.19 miles) in size and structure but spins very slowly; a day on Venus is 243 Earth days long.

7) Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their sizes?

(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Jupiter (69,911 km / 43,441 miles) – 1,120% the size of Earth
Saturn (58,232 km / 36,184 miles) – 945% the size of Earth
Uranus (25,362 km / 15,759 miles) –400% the size of Earth
Neptune (24,622 km / 15,299 miles) – 388% the size of Earth
Earth (6,371 km / 3,959 miles)

8) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is

(a) 50 Million years
(b) 100 Million years
(c) 250 Million years
(d) 365 Million years
Answer: (c)
the Sun is dragging us around the galaxy at around 800,000km/h, taking around 250 million years to complete a single orbit.
That means our Solar System has made around 18 complete circuits since it was formed around 4.5 billion years ago.

9): The planet having the largest diameter is

(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer: (b)
Jupiter is composed primarily of gaseous and liquid matter. It is the largest of the four giant planets in the Solar System and hence its largest planet. It has a diameter of 142,984 km (88,846 mi) at its equator

10) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun is (CSS 2010)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 98 days
(d) 60 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A year on Mercury is just 88 days long. One solar day (the time from noon to noon on the planet’s surface) on Mercury lasts the equivalent of 176 Earth days while the sidereal day (the time for 1 rotation in relation to a fixed point) lasts 59 Earth days. Mercury is nearly tidally locked to the Sun and over time this has slowed the rotation of the planet to almost match its orbit around the Sun. Mercury also has the highest orbital eccentricity of all the planets with its distance from the Sun ranging from 46 to 70 million km.

11) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. Jupiter has a mean radius of 43,440.7 miles (69,911 kilometers), about a tenth that of the sun. However, its rapid rotation — it spins once every 9.8 hours

12) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Apollo 17 mission deployed an instrument called the Lunar Atmospheric Composition Experiment (LACE) on the moon’s surface. It detected small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.

13) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS 2009)

(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

14) The sun produces most of its energy by (CSS 2012)

(a) Nuclear fusion which involves converting “H” to “He”
(b) Nuclear fission involving the burning of uranium & plutonium
(c) Nuclear fission involving the combining of uranium and palladium
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Sun, like all stars, is able to create energy because it is essentially a massive fusion reaction.
The core of the Sun is the region that extends from the center to about 20–25% of the solar radius. It is here, in the core, where energy is produced by hydrogen atoms (H) being converted into molecules of helium (He) This is possible thanks to the extreme pressure and temperature that exists within the core, which are estimated to be the equivalent of 250 billion atmospheres (25.33 trillion KPa) and 15.7 million kelvin, respectively.

15) Although the mass of a man on moon remains same as on the earth he will (CSS 2012)

(a) Be much happier there
(b) Weigh one sixth as much
(c) Weigh twice as much
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The Moon’s gravity is one sixth of the Earth’s gravity. A 120 kg astronaut weighs 1200 N on Earth. On the Moon they would weigh only 200 N. The astronaut’s mass is 120kg wherever they are.

16) The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon is: (CSS 2011)

(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

17): The earth rotates 011 its axis from_

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (d)
The Earth rotates from the west towards east. As viewed from North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.

18): Name two planets which revolve around their axis from east to west

(a) Earth and Venus
(b) Mars and Earth
(c) Venus and Uranus
(d) Mars and Uranus
Answer: (c)
Planets have no light of their own and all of them expect Venus and Uranus, rotate upon their axis from west to east.

19) Our sun is classified as (CSS 2012)

(a) A Blue giant
(b) A Yellow dwarf
(c) Supernova
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star, or G dwarf star, or more imprecisely, a yellow dwarf. Actually, the sun — like other G-type stars — is white, but appears yellow through Earth’s atmosphere. Stars generally get bigger as they grow older

20): Name the planet which revolve approximately 90 degree with its orbital plane_.

(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
Unlike any other planet, Uranus rotates on its side. That is, the rotation axis is tilted approximately 90 degrees relative to the planet’s orbital plane.

21): The hottest planet of our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Earth
Answer: (b)
Venus’s thick atmosphere made up mainly of CO2 makes it the hottest planet in the solar system. Mercury is colder because it’s atmosphere is thin.

22): Which of the following constellation contains Pole Star?

(a) Orion
(b) Ursa Major
(c) Ursa Minor
(d) Scorpio
Answer: (b)

23): All the stars appear to move from

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (c)
Every day, the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west. Actually, these celestial objects aren’t moving that fast, but Earth is. It spins on its axis from west to east approximately every 24 hours.
Because we are standing on Earth’s surface, we move along with it. To us, it appears as if everything in the sky is moving from east to west.

24): The body burning like a star and coming towards the earth

(a) Comet
(b) Meteor
(c) Ceres
(d) Satellites
Answer: (b)
Fleeting trails of light are called meteors or shooting stars and they are created by small particles, some no bigger than a grain of rice, as they are completely burned up high in the atmosphere: about 100 km (or 60 miles) above the Earth. They are over literally in the blink of an eye. Space debris is collectively termed meteoroids, those larger fragments that reach the ground are called meteorites. Very big meteoroids are also known as asteroids. If one collides with Earth it would cause a major catastrophe.

25) Which of the following is not true?

(a) Planets rotate on their own axis.
(b) Planets do not emit light.
(c) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky
(d) Most of the planets have rings around them.
Answer: (d)

26) Which is the brightest planet?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth. Venus can often be seen within a few hours after sunset or before sunrise as the brightest object in the sky (other than the moon)

27) The stars in space are ___.

(a) Uniformly spread out.
(b) Distributed completely at random
(c) Chiefly in the Milky Way
(d) Mostly contained within widely separated galaxies
Answer: (d)

28) “Black holes” refer to: (CSS 2009)

(a) Hole occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing objects of high density
(d) Collapsing of low density
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)

29) The Milky Way is _____.

( a) a gas cloud in the solar system
(b) a gas cloud in the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(c) the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(d) a nearby galaxy
Answer: (c)

30) Relative to the center of our galaxy, ____.

( a) its starts are stationary
(b) its stars move entirely at random
(c) its stars revolve
(d) Population I starts are stationary and Population II star revolve
Answer: (c)

31) Evidence of various kinds suggests that at the center of our galaxy is a ___.

( a) Quasar
(b) Pulsar
(c) Neutron star
(d) Black hole
Answer: (d)
A supermassive black hole (SMBH) is the largest type of black hole, in the order of hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses (M☉), and is found in the centre of almost all currently known massive galaxies. In the case of the Milky Way, the SMBH corresponds with the location of Sagittarius A*

32) A radio telescope is basically a (an) __.

(a) device for magnifying radio waves
(b) Telescope remotely controlled by radio
(c) Directional antenna connected to a sensitive radio receiver
(d) Optical telescope that uses electronic techniques to produce an image
Answer: (c)
Radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system that is used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. Because radio wavelengths are much longer than those of visible light, radio telescopes must be very large in order to attain the resolution of optical telescopes.
The first radio telescope, built in 1937 by Grote Reber of Wheaton

33) Sun is a: (CSS 2011)

(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Satellite
(d) Aurora
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
The Sun (or Sol), is the star at the centre of our solar system
The Sun is by far the largest object in the solar system. It contains more than 99.8% of the total mass of the Solar System (Jupiter contains most of the rest).

34) The age of the solar system is (CSS 2011)

(a) 4.5 billion years
(b) 5.5 billion years
(c) 6.5 billion years
(d) 7.5 billion years
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
By studying several things, mostly meteorites, and using radioactive dating techniques, specifically looking at daughter isotopes, scientists have determined that the Solar System is 4.6 billion years old. Well, give or take a few million years. That age can be extended to most of the objects and material in the Solar System.

35) An eclipse of the sun occurs when (CSS 2011)

(a) The moon is between the sun and the earth
(b) The sun is between the earth and the moon
(c) The earth is between the sun and the moon
(d) The earth casts its shadow on the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

36) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS 2009)

(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolaus Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
Considered today to be the father of modern astronomy, Nicolaus Copernicus was born on February 19, 1473 in Torun, Poland.

37) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is: (CSS 2009)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 2 years
(d) 98 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days (87.969 to be exact), which means a single year is 88 Earth days – or the equivalent of about 0.241 Earth years. But here’s the thing. Because of Mercury’s slow rotation (once every 58.646 days) and its rapid orbital speed (47.362 km/s), one day on Mercury actually works out to 175.96 Earth days.

38) Primary cosmic rays are composed largely of very fast ___.

( a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (a)
Of primary cosmic rays, which originate outside of Earth’s atmosphere, about 99% are the nuclei (stripped of their electron shells) of well-known atoms, and about 1% are solitary electrons (similar to beta particles). Of the nuclei, about 90% are simple protons, i. e. hydrogen nuclei; 9% are alpha particles, identical to helium nuclei, and 1% are the nuclei of heavier elements, called HZE ions

39) Cosmic rays ____.

(a) Circulate freely through space
(b) are trapped in our galaxy by electric fields
(c) are trapped in our galaxy by magnetic fields
(d) are trapped in our galaxy by gravitational fields
Answer: (c)

40) The red shift in the spectral lines of light reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ______.

( a) are moving closer to one another
(b) are moving farther apart from one another
(c) are in rapid rotation
(d) Consist predominantly of red giant stars
Answer: (b)

41) According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, the universe _____.

( a) Must be expanding
(b) Must be contracting
(c) Must be either expanding or contracting
(d) May be neither expanding nor contracting
Answer: (c)

42) Supernova explosions have no connection with _______.

( a) The formation of heavy elements
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) Pulsars
(d) Quasars
Answer: (d)

43) Current ideas suggest that what is responsible for the observed properties of a quasar is a massive ____.

(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Spiral galaxy
(d) Star cluster
Answer: (b)

44) The age of the universe is probably in the neighborhood of ______.

( a) 15 million years
(b) 4 ½ billion years
(c) 15 billion years
(d) 30 billion years
Answer: (c)

45) The term big bang refers to ___.

( a) the origin of the universe
(b) the ultimate fate of the universe
(c) a supernova explosion
(d) the formation of a quasar
Answer: (a)

46) The elements heavier than hydrogen and helium of which the planets are composed probably came from the __.
( a) Sun
(b) Debris of supernova explosions that occurred before the solar system came into being
(c) Big bang
(d) Big crunch
Answer: (b)

47) Today the universe apparently contains ____.

( a) Only matter
(b) Only antimatter
(c) Equal amounts of matter and antimatter
(d) Slightly more matter than antimatter
Answer: (a)

48) Radiation from the early history of the universe was Doppler-shifted by the expansion of the universe until today it is in the form of _______.

( a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Infrared waves
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (d)

49) Present evidence suggests that most of the mass of the universe is in the form of ______.

( a) Dark matter
(b) Luminous matter
(c) Cosmic rays
(d) Black holes
Answer: (a)

50) It is likely that the planets, satellites, and other members of the solar system were formed ________.

(a) Together with the sun
(b) Later than the sun from material it ejected
(c) Later than the sun from material it captured from space
(d) Elsewhere and were captured by the sun
Answer: (a)

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Triple Centuries In Test Cricket Quiz

1) Who was the first cricketer to hit a triple century in a Test and create a record for highest number of runs by an individual in a Test Innings?
a) Andrew Sandham
b) C. B. Fry
c) Jack Hobbs
d) Leary Constantine

2) Who broke the previous record by scoring 334 runs in a Test Innings?
a) Donald George Bradman
b) Hanif Mohammed
c) Michael Colin Cowdrey
d) Vijay Samuel Hazare

3) How many runs were scored by Leonard Hutton to create a new world record?
a) 302
b) 336
c) 337
d) 364

4) Who could not complete his triple century against South Africa in a Test Innings and remained 299 not out as the last batting partner was run out?
a) Lawrence Rowe
b) Sunil Gavaskar
c) Donald George Bradman
d) Peter May

5) Who broke Leonard Hutton’s record by scoring 365 not out?
a) Rohan Kanhai
b) Clive Lloyd
c) Conrad Hunte
d) Garfield Sobers

6) How many runs were scored by Brian Charles Lara when he overtook the previous record that had stood for 36 years 1 month and 16 days?
a) 373
b) 375
c) 374
d) 371

7) Who broke Brian Charles Lara’s record by scoring 380?
a) Kim Hughes
b) Matthew Hayden
c) Ricky Ponting
d) Adam Gilchrist

8) Brian Charles Lara was back again to claim the world record to his name. How many runs did he score?
a) 381
b) 384
c) 390
d) 400 not out

9) Who of the following has not hit two triple centuries in Tests?
a) Brian Charles Lara
b) Donald George Bradman
c) Walter Hammond
d) Virender Sehwag

10) Who batted 970 minutes when scoring 337 runs?
a) John Edrich
b) Hanif Mohammad
c) Robert Simpson
d) Anthony Greig

Triple Centuries In Test Cricket Quiz Answers

1) Who was the first cricketer to hit a triple century in a Test and create a record for highest number of runs by an individual in a Test Innings?
a) Andrew Sandham

2) Who broke the previous record by scoring 334 runs in a Test Innings?
a) Donald George Bradman

3) How many runs were scored by Leonard Hutton to create a new world record?
d) 364

4) Who could not complete his triple century against South Africa in a Test Innings and remained 299 not out as the last batting partner was run out?
c) Donald George Bradman

5) Who broke Leonard Hutton’s record by scoring 365 not out?
d) Garfield Sobers

6) How many runs were scored by Brian Charles Lara when he overtook the previous record that had stood for 36 years 1 month and 16 days?
b) 375

7) Who broke Brian Charles Lara’s record by scoring 380?
b) Matthew Hayden

8) Brian Charles Lara was back again to claim the world record to his name. How many runs did he score?
d) 400 not out

9) Who of the following has not hit two triple centuries in Tests?
c) Walter Hammond

10) Who batted 970 minutes when scoring 337 runs?
b) Hanif Mohammad

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MCQs / Q&A, Sports, Test, World

George Herbert Hitchings Quiz

George Herbert Hitchings Quiz Questions

1. When did George Herbert Hitchings get Nobel Prize for Medicine?
a) 1978
b) 1962
c) 1988
d) 1984

2. When was George Herbert Hitchings born?
a) 9 February 1907
b) 18 April 1905
c) 14 August 1918
d) 7 October 1910

3. Where was George Herbert Hitchings born?
a) Houston
b) Atlanta
c) Salt Lake City
d) Hoquiam

4. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings get master’s degree?
a) Washington
b) Princeton
c) Yale
d) California

5. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings teach?
a) Montreal
b) Columbia
c) Pennsylvania
d) Harvard

6. Which laboratory did George Herbert Hitchings join in 1942?
a) Wellcome Research Laboratories
b) Burroghs Wellcome Laboratory
c) Fermi National Accelerator Laboratory
d) Smith Kline and French Laboratories

7. When did George Herbert Hitchings and Gertrude Belle Elion produce azathioprione?
a) 1957
b) 1964
c) 1986
d) 1992

8. For what did George Herbert Hitchings win Nobel Prize?
a) Discoveries concerning the molecular structure of DNA
b) Tuberculosis research
c) Devlopment of drugs for combating disease
d) Work on dioptrics of the eye

9. When did George Herbert Hitchings die?
a) 27 February 1998
b) 22 May 1996
c) 12 July 1994
d) 4 December 1992

10. Where did George Herbert Hitchings die?
a) Palm Springs
b) Chapel Hill
c) New York
d) Sacramento

George Herbert Hitchings Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When did George Herbert Hitchings get Nobel Prize for Medicine?
c) 1988

2. When was George Herbert Hitchings born?
b) 18 April 1905

3. Where was George Herbert Hitchings born?
d) Hoquiam

4. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings get master’s degree?
a) Washington

5. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings teach?
d) Harvard

6. Which laboratory did George Herbert Hitchings join in 1942?
b) Burroghs Wellcome Laboratory

7. When did George Herbert Hitchings and Gertrude Belle Elion produce azathioprione?
a) 1957

8. For what did George Herbert Hitchings win Nobel Prize?
c) Devlopment of drugs for combating disease

9. When did George Herbert Hitchings die?
a) 27 February 1998

10. Where did George Herbert Hitchings die?
b) Chapel Hill

Originally posted 2017-02-24 22:35:36.

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities