Who was the first man in space?
Question
Who was the first man in space?
Answer:
Yuri Gagarin
Who was the first man in space? Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&ASpace
General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I)
1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.
2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins
3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.
5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.
6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.
7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.
8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes
9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.
10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.
11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.
13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.
14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.
16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.
17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.
18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)
19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)
22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)
23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)
24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)
25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)
26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)
27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.
28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)
29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.
30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)
31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)
32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)
33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)
34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.
35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)
36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)
37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)
38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)
39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)
41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)
42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)
43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)
44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)
45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)
46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)
47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)
48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.
49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)
50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)
General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I) Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&ADay by Day Current Affairs (December 08, 2018)
December 7, 2018: National Current Affairs
1. Pakistan wants `proper ties` with US like its relations with China
• Prime Minister Imran Khan has expressed his desire to have a proper relationship with the United States akin to Islamabad`s ties with Beijing rather than the one where Pakistan is treated like a `hired gun`.
• The prime minister, in his first interview to The Washington Post after assuming office, said: `I would never want to have a relationship where Pakistan is treated like a hired gun given money to fight someone else`s war. It not only cost us human lives, devastation of our tribal areas, but it also cost us our dignity.
• When asked to elaborate on the ideal nature of relationship that he would like to have with Washington, Mr Khan said: `For instance, our relationship with China is not one-dimensional. It`s a trade relationship between two countries. We want a similar relationship with the US.
• The prime minister explained that the country was not `hedging` towards China, but it was rather Washington`s attitude that had brought a change in the Pakistan-US relationship. He clarified that disagreeing with US policies did not equate to him being `anti-American` when he was asked why he harboured `anti-US sentiments`. `This is a very imperialistic approach: you`re either with me or against me,` he observed.
2. `Only 1pc of the population are tax filers, 70pc of the economy is undocumented`
• Economists and energy experts on December 7, 2018, called for structural, legal and fiscal reforms to bring the country out of the crisis.
• They suggested increasing the tax base, improving the capacity of state institutions, inclusiveness and creating a technology-friendly environment to create jobs and harnessing the talents and skills of the younger generation, who comprise 60pc of the population.
• During a panel discussion on `The Dynamic Global Economy: Fostering the Pakistan Advantage` organised by a public diplomacy initiative, RAABTA, experts attempted to address some of the tricky questions such as population growth, fiscal and financial imbalances, the direction of the government for steering the country out of economic crisis, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) bailout and its impact on the citizens. The discussion was moderated by broadcast journalist Sidra Iqbal.
3. SBP to issue Rs50 coin for anti-graft day
• The State Bank of Pakistan (SBP) on December 7, 2018 said it will issue a commemorative coin of Rs50 from Monday, Dec 10, to mark the International Anti Corruption Day.
• On Oct 31, 2003, the United Nations General Assembly adopted the convention against corruption and designated Dec 9 as International Anti-Corruption Day to raise public awareness about it.
• The government has now authorised SBP to issue Rs50 commemorative coin which will be available through exchange counters of all the field offices of SBP Banking Services Corporation from Dec 10
4. Two new SECP commissioners appointed
• The federal cabinet on December 7, 2018 issued notification for the appointment of two new commissioners at the Securities and Exchange Commission of Pakistan (SECP).
• According to the Finance Division notification, the federal government has appointed Executive Director/ Spokesperson SECP Aamir Khan and Farrukh H Sabzwari as commissioners in SECP for a period of three years with immediate effect.
• Following the new appointments, the number of commissioners now stands at five, completing the commission.
• Mr Khan has extensive experience spanning almost 30 years covering banking, capital markets, structuring of financial solutions/products, leading national initiatives, business transformation, and regulatory reform. Since 2012, he has been serving as an executive director at the SECP.
5. Ban on hiring of doctors lifted
• The Punjab government allowed the health department on December 7, 2018 for ad hoc appointment of doctors and paramedics.
• According to a notification of Services and General Administration Department, regulations wing, the cabinet, in its meeting held on Aug 31, had decided to impose a ban on all recruitments from BPS-01 to BPS-16 in all administrative departments except on the posts from BPS-17 and above which fell under the preview of the Punjab Public Service Commission (PPSC).
December 8, 2018: International Current Affairs
6. Over half of global population now online: UN
• Some 3.9 billion people are now using the Internet, meaning that for the first time more than half of the global population is online, the United Nations said on December 7, 2018.
• The UN agency for information and communication technologies, ITU, said that by the end of 2018 a full 51.2 per cent of people around the world will be using the Internet.
• `By the end of 2018, we will surpass the 50/50 milestone for Internet use,` ITU chief Houlin Zhou said in a statement.
• `This represents an important step towards a more inclusive global information society,` he said, adding though that `far too many people around the world are still waiting to reap the benefits of the digital economy.` He called for more support to `technology and business innovation so that the digital revolution leaves no one offline.
7. China prepares mission to land spacecraft on moon`s far side
• China was preparing to launch a ground-breaking mission to soft-land a spacecraft on the largely unexplored far side of the moon, demonstrating its growing ambitions as a space power to rival Russia, the European Union and US.
• With its Chang`e 4 mission, China hopes to be the first country to ever successfully undertake such a landing. The moon`s far side is also known as the dark side because it faces away from Earth and remains comparatively unknown, with a different composition from sites on the near side, where previous missions have landed.
• If successful, the mission scheduled to blast off aboard a Long March 3B rocket will propel the Chinese space programme to a leading position in one of the most important areas of lunar exploration.
8. Australia passes new data encryption laws
• Australia has passed controversial laws designed to compel technology companies to grant police and security agencies access to encrypted messages. The government says the laws, a world first, are necessary to help combat terrorism and crime.
• However critics have listed wide-ranging concerns, including that the laws could undermine the overall security and privacy of users.
• The laws were rushed through parliament on its final day of the year. The Labor opposition said it had reluctantly supported the laws to help protect Australians during the Christmas period, but on December 7, 2018 it said that “legitimate concerns” about them remained.
• Cyber-security experts have warned the laws could now create a “global weak point” for companies such as Facebook and Apple.
• Australia already has laws which require providers to hand over a suspect’s communication to police. This may already be possible if a service provider uses a form of encryption that allows them to view a user’s message.
9. Tool designed to track steps of cells’ development
• Researchers at Washington University School of Medicine in St Louis have developed a new tool described as a “flight data recorder” for developing cells, illuminating the paths cells take as they progress from one type to another.
• Using the flight data recorder, the researchers performed experiments that uncovered some surprising details about the specific routes taken by cells that successfully completed their flight paths.
• The technique harnesses the natural properties of a virus that inserts tiny DNA “barcodes,” called “CellTags,” into each cell. As the cells divide, their unique barcodes are passed down to all their descendant cells. The CellTagging technique keeps track of which cells share common ancestors and how far back that common ancestor is found in the lineage. The researchers found that if a certain gene, called Mettl7a1, was turned on in cells, they were three times as likely to successfully reprogram compared with cells in which this gene is inactive. Another interesting finding was that the cells that were not successful in their reprogramming didn’t just end up all over the map. They appeared to converge at the same dead end, tending to revert back to look like the original cell type. The tool could reveal cellular “reprogramming” routes that might involve reverting skin cells back to different types of stem cells that could then mature into a new liver or other vital organ.
• Among many potential uses, the tool also could be applied in cancer research, recording the wrong turns normal cells might take to develop into tumors, according to the researchers.
December 8, 2018: Sports Current Affairs
10. New Zealand crush Pakistan to win Test series
• Debutant Will Somerville grabbed three key wickets to guide New Zealand to their first away series win over Pakistan in 49 years with a crushing 123-run win in the third and final Test on December 7, 2018.
• The off-spinner took 3-52 and was aided by fellow spinner Ajaz Patel`s 3-42 as Pakistan came up well short after being set a daunting 280-run target in 79 overs.
• They crumbled to 156 in 56.1 overs on a weary pitch at Sheikh Zayed Stadium in Abu Dhabi.
• The victory gave New Zealand a 2-1 series win after they had taken the first Test by a narrow four-run margin at the same venue. Pakistan bounced back with an innings and 16-run win in the second Test in Dubai.
• New Zealand`s last away series win against Pakistan was a 1-0 victory in matches played in Pakistan in 1969-70.
• It was New Zealand`s fifth Test series win in their last six played since November 2016. They beat Pakistan, Bangladesh, the West Indies and England all at home with the single loss came against South Africa.
Day by Day Current Affairs (December 08, 2018) Read More »
Current Affairs, Sports, Test, WorldGeneral Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III)
Click HERE for Q.No.1-50
Click HERE for Q.No.51-100
101) Which type of star is maintained by the pressure of an electron gas?
(a) Main Sequence Star
(b) White Dwarf
(c) Neutron Star
(d) Black Hole
Answer: (b)
White dwarfs are stars supported by pressure of degenerate electron gas. i.e. in their interiors thermal energy kT is much smaller then Fermi energy Ep. We shall derive the equations of structure of white dwarfs, sometimes called degenerate dwarfs, in the limiting case when their thermal pressure may be neglected, but the degenerate electron gas may be either non-relativistic. somewhat relativistic. or ultra-relativistic.
102) Which of the following first hypothesized that the Earth orbited the sun?
(a) Alexander the Great
(b) Copernicus
(c) Socrates
(d) Tycho Brahe
Answer: (b)
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance mathematician and astronomer who formulated a model of the universe that placed the Sun rather than the Earth at the center of the universe.
103) The LAST manned moon flight was made in what year?
(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1973 (d) 1974
Answer: (b)
The last manned landing Apollo 17 on the Moon to date, which took place on December 11, 1972, was made by Commander Eugene Cernan and lunar module pilot Harrison Schmitt who was also the first scientist on the Moon.
104) A planet is said to be at aphelion when it is:
(a) closest to the sun
(b) farthest from the sun
(c) at it’s highest point above the ecliptic
(d) at it’s lowest point below the ecliptic
Answer: (b)
105) The word Albedo refers to which of the following?
(a) The wobbling motion of a planet
(b) The amount of light a planet reflects
(c) The phase changes of a planet
(d) The brightness of a star
Answer: (b)
Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. The albedo effect when applied to the Earth is a measure of how much of the Sun’s energy is reflected back into space. Overall, the Earth’s albedo has a cooling effect. (The term ‘albedo’ is derived from the Latin for ‘whiteness’).
106) A pulsar is actually a:
(a) black hole
(b) white dwarf
(c) red giant
(d) neutron star
Answer: (d)
107) Astronomers use Cepheid’s principally as measures of what? Is it:
(a) size
(b) speed
(c) chemical composition
(d) distance
Answer: (d)
108) Where are most asteroids located? Is it between:
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Mars and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Mars and Jupiter
Answer: (d)
109) The precession of the Earth refers to the:
(a) change from night to day.
(b) Earth’s motion around the sun.
(c) change in orientation of the Earth’s axis.
(d) effect of the moon on the Earth’s orbit.
Answer: (c)
Precession is the change in orientation of the Earth’s rotational axis. The precession cycle takes about 19,000 – 23,000 years. Precession is caused by two factors: a wobble of the Earth’s axis and a turning around of the elliptical orbit of the Earth itself (Thomas, 2002). Obliquity affected the tilt of the Earth’s axis, precession affects the direction of the Earth’s axis. The change in the axis location changes the dates of perihelion (closest distance from sun) and aphelion (farthest distance from sun), and this increases the seasonal contrast in one hemisphere while decreasing it in the other hemisphere ( Kaufman, 2002). currently, the Earth is closest to the sun in the northern hemisphere winter, which makes the winters there less severe (Thomas, 2002). Another consequence of precession is a shift in the celestial poles. 5000 years ago the North Star was Thuban in the constellation Draco. Currently the North Star is Polaris in the constellation Ursa Minor.
110) The Magellanic cloud is a:
(a) nebula
(b) galaxy
(c) super nova remnant
(d) star cluster
Answer: (b)
111) The comet known as Halley’s Comet has an average period of:
(a) 56 years
(b) 66 years
(c) 76 years
(d) 86 years
Answer: (c)
Halley’s Comet orbits the Sun every 76.0 years and has an orbital eccentricity of 0.97. Comet Halley was visible in 1910 and again in 1986. Its next perihelion passage will be in early 2062.
112) Which one of the following planets has no moons?
(a) Mars
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
113) The rocks that enter the earth’s atmosphere and blaze a trail all the way to the ground and do not burn up completely are known as:
(a) meteorites
(b) meteors
(c) asteroids
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
A meteorite is a solid piece of debris from an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that originates in outer space and survives its passage through the Earth’s atmosphere and impact with the Earth’s surface
114) 95% of the Martian atmosphere is composed of what substance?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon monoxide
Answer: (a)
The atmosphere of Mars is about 100 times thinner than Earth’s, and it is 95 percent carbon dioxide.
115) What is the motion called when a planet seems to be moving westward in the sky?
(a) Retrograde
(b) Parallax
(c) Opcentric
(d) Reverse parallax
Answer: (a)
Retrograde motion, in astronomy, describes the orbit of a celestial body that runs counter to the direction of the spin of that body which it orbits. Apparent retrograde motion, in astronomy, is the apparent motion of planets as observed from a particular vantage point.
116) In what year did Galileo first use an optical telescope to study the moon?
(a) 1492 (b) 1611
(c) 1212 (d) 1743
Answer: (b)
117) Geocentric means around:
(a) Jupiter (b) the Earth
(c) the Moon (d) the Sun
Answer: (b)
118) The Pythagoreans appear to have been the first to have taught that the Earth is:
(a) at the center of the Universe.
(b) spherical in shape.
(c) orbits around the sun.
(d) flat with sharp edges.
Answer: (b)
119) A device which would not work on the Moon is:
(a) thermometer
(b) siphon
(c) spectrometer
(d) spring balance
Answer: (b)
Siphons will not work in the International Space Station where there is air but no gravity, but neither will they work on the Moon where there is gravity but no air
120) Of the following colors, which is bent least in passing through aprism?
(a) orange (b) violet
(c) green (d) red
Answer: (d)
121) In a reflecting telescope where in the tube is the objective mirror placed?
(a) the top to the tube
(b) the middle of the tube
(c) the bottom of the tube
(d) the side of the tube
Answer: (c)
122) What does it mean when someone says that comets have eccentric orbits? Does it mean
(a) they have open orbits
(b) they have nearly circular orbits
(c) their orbits are unpredictable
(d) the sun is far from the foci of their orbits
Answer: (d)
123) What causes the gas tail of a comet to always point away from the sun?
(a) solar wind
(b) air pressure
(c) centrifugal force
(d) gravity
Answer: (a)
124) What are Saturn’s rings composed of?
(a) completely connected solid masses
(b) billions of tiny solid particles
(c) mixtures of gases
(d) highly reflective cosmic clouds
Answer: (b)
125) Of the following, which is the only planet which CANNOT be seen with the unaided eye?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
The ice giant Neptune was the first planet located through mathematical predictions rather than through regular observations of the sky. Nearly 4.5 billion kilometers (2.8 billion miles) from the Sun, Neptune orbits the Sun once every 165 years. It is invisible to the naked eye because of its extreme distance from Earth. In 2011 Neptune completed its first orbit since its discovery in 1846.
126) Accretion is:
(a) the gradual accumulation of matter in one location usually due to gravity.
(b) the process of moon formation for planets.
(c) the process of matter accumulation due to centripetal force.
(d) the disintegration of matter.
Answer: (b)
127) A blue shift means a Doppler shift of light from a(an)
(a) receding star.
(b) blue star.
(c) approaching star.
(d) fixed star.
Answer: (c)
In the Doppler effect for visible light, the frequency is shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum when the light source (such as a star) is approaching.
128) The first and largest asteroid discovered was:
(a) Pallas.
(b) Juno.
(c) Ceres.
(d) Trojan.
Answer: (c)
129) The Crab Nebula consists of the remnants of a supernova which was observed by:
(a) Brahe in 1572.
(b) Kepler and Galileo in 1604.
(c) the Chinese in 1054 A.D.
(d) several ancient civilizations in 236 B.C.
Answer: (c)
The Crab Nebula, the result of a supernova noted by Earth-bound chroniclers in 1054 A.D., is filled with mysterious filaments that are are not only tremendously complex, but appear to have less mass than expelled in the original supernova and a higher speed than expected from a free explosion. The Crab Nebula spans about 10 light-years. In the nebula’s very center lies a pulsar: a neutron star as massive as the Sun but with only the size of a small town. The Crab Pulsar rotates about 30 times each second.
130) The atmosphere of Venus contains mostly
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water
Answer: (b)
The atmosphere of Venus is composed of about 96% carbon dioxide, with most … various other corrosive compounds, and the atmosphere contains little water.
131) On the celestial sphere, the annual path of the Sun is called
(a) the eclipse path.
(b) ecliptic.
(c) diurnal.
(d) solstice.
Answer: (b)
The ecliptic is an imaginary line on the sky that marks the annual path of the sun. It is the projection of Earth’s orbit onto the celestial sphere.
132) The angular distance between a planet and the Sun, as viewed from the Earth, is called
(a) angle of inclination.
(b) elongation.
(c) latitude.
(d) opposition.
Answer: (b)
Elongation is the angular distance between the sun, and another object such a moon or a planet as seen from earth. There are several special names for these angular distances. The different names of these angles depend on the status, inferior or superior, of the planet. The planets closer to the sun than the earth are called inferior planets. The planets farther away from the sun than earth are called superior planets.
Elongation is measured from earth as the angle between the sun and the planet. Sometimes the apparent relative position of a planet in relation to the sun is called the aspect, or configuration, of a planet.
133) Which of the following has the highest density?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Earth has the highest density of any planet in the Solar System, at 5.514 g/cm3. This is considered the standard by which other planet’s densities are measured. In addition, the combination of Earth’s size, mass and density also results in a surface gravity of 9.8 m/s². This is also used as a the standard (one g) when measuring the surface gravity of other planets.
134) Which of the following planets is NOT a terrestrial planet?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer: (b)
The term terrestrial planet is derived from the Latin “Terra” (i.e. Earth). Terrestrial planets are therefore those that are “Earth-like”, meaning they are similar in structure and composition to planet Earth. All those planets found within the Inner Solar System – Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars – are examples of terrestrial planets. Each are composed primarily of silicate rock and metal, which is differentiated between a dense, metallic core and a silicate mantle.
135) Why do we see lunar eclipses much more often than solar eclipses?
(a) Lunar eclipses occur more often than solar eclipses.
(b) Lunar eclipses last longer than solar eclipses.
(c) The lunar eclipse is visible to much more of the Earth than a solar eclipse.
(d) The moon is closer to the Earth than the sun.
Answer: (c)
Lunar and solar eclipses occur with about equal frequency. Lunar eclipses are more widely visible because Earth casts a much larger shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse than the Moon casts on Earth during a solar eclipse. As a result, we are more likely to see a lunar eclipse than a solar eclipse.
136) A star like object with a very large red shift is a
(a) Neutron star.
(b) Nova.
(c) Quasar.
(d) Supernova.
Answer: (c)
Quasars: In the 1930’s, Edwin Hubble discovered that all galaxies have a positive redshift. In other words, all galaxies were receding from the Milky Way.
137) The apparent magnitude of an object in the sky describes its
(a) Size
(b) Magnification
(c) Brightness
(d) Distance
Answer: (c)
138) The Van Allen belts are:
(a) caused by the refraction of sunlight like rainbows.
(b) charged particles trapped in the Earth’s magnetic field.
(c) caused by the reflection of polar snow.
(d) caused by precession.
Answer: (b)
The Van Allen belts are a collection of charged particles, gathered in place by Earth’s magnetic field. They can wax and wane in response to incoming energy from the sun, sometimes swelling up enough to expose satellites in low-Earth orbit to damaging radiation.
139) A coordinate system based on the ecliptic system is especially useful for the studies of
(a) Planets
(b) Stars
(c) The Milky Way
(d) Galaxies
Answer: (a)
140) The mean distance of the earth from the sun in astronomical units is:
(a) 3.7 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 101
Answer: (c)
In astronomy, an astronomical unit is defined as the average distance from the Sun to the Earth, or about 150 million kilometers (93 million miles). You can abbreviate astronomical unit as AU.
Since the distances in astronomy are so vast, astronomers use this measurement to bring the size of numbers down.
For example, Earth is 1 au from the Sun, and Mars is 1.523 AU. That’s much easier than saying that Mars is 227,939,000 km away from the Sun.
141) What process produces a star’s energy?
(a) hydrogen and oxygen combustion
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) neutron beta decay
(d) nuclear fission
Answer: (b)
The enormous luminous energy of the stars comes from nuclear fusion processes in their centers. Depending upon the age and mass of a star, the energy may come from proton-proton fusion, helium fusion, or the carbon cycle.
142) What is the most distant object in the sky that the human eye can see without optical instruments?
(a) The Horsehead Nebula
(b) The Andromeda Galaxy
(c) The Sagittarius Constellation
(d) The Aurora Borealis
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy (M31) is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way and is one of a few galaxies that can be seen unaided from the Earth. In approximately 4.5 billion years the Andromeda Galaxy and the Milky Way are expected to collide and the result will be a giant elliptical galaxy. Andromeda is accompanied by 14 dwarf galaxies, including M32, M110, and possibly M33 (The Triangulum Galaxy).
143) Which civilization developed and implemented the first solar calendar?
(a) Babylonian
(b) Greek
(c) Egyptian
(d) Aztec
Answer: (c)
A solar calendar is a calendar whose dates indicate the position of the earth on its revolution around the sun and is based on the seasonal year of approximately 365 1/4 days, the time it takes the Earth to revolve once around the Sun. The Egyptians appear to have been the first to develop a solar calendar, using as a fixed point the annual sunrise reappearance of the Dog Star — Sirius, or Sothis — in the eastern sky, which coincided with the annual flooding of the Nile River. They constructed a calendar of 365 days, consisting of 12 months of 30 days each, with 5 days added at the year’s end. The Egyptians’ failure to account for the extra fraction of a day, however, caused their calendar to drift gradually into error.
144) What is the HOTTEST region of the sun?
(a) The core
(b) The photosphere
(c) The chromospheres
(d) The corona
Answer: (d)
The corona is the outermost layer of the Sun, starting at about 1300 miles (2100 km) above the solar surface (the photosphere) The temperature in the corona is 500,000 K (900,000 degrees F, 500,000 degrees C) or more, up to a few million K. The corona cannot be seen with the naked eye except during a total solar eclipse, or with the use of a coronagraph. The corona does not have an upper limit.
A study published in 2012 in Nature Communications by researchers at Northumbria University found a possible mechanism that causes some stars to have a corona that is almost 200 times hotter than their photosphere (the star’s surface).
145) The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because:
(a) the moon is not rotating about its axis.
(b) the moon’s motion was fixed at its creation by the laws of inertia.
(c) tidal forces keep the moon’s rotation and orbiting motion in sync with each other.
(d) the moon’s magnetic poles keep aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field.
Answer: (b)
146) The resolving power of a telescope depends on the:
(a) focal ratio
(b) diameter of the objective
(c) magnification
(d) focal length
Answer: (b)
The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of the telescope’s light-gathering apparatus, or objective. In a refracting telescope, the objective lens is the first lens the light passes through. In a reflecting telescope, the objective is the telescope’s primary mirror. In a Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope, the objective is also the primary mirror. As the diameter of the telescope’s objective increases, the resolving power increases.
147) On a clear, dark, moonless night, approximately how many stars can be seen with the naked eye?
(a) 300 (b) 1,000
(c) 3,000 (d) 10,000
Answer: (c)
On any clear dark moonless night a person can see about 3000 stars of our galaxy without the aid of a telescope
148) The study of the origin and evolution of the universe is known as:
(a) Tomography
(b) cystoscopy
(c) cryology
(d) cosmology
Answer: (d)
Cosmology is the branch of astronomy involving the origin and evolution of the universe, from the Big Bang to today and on into the future. According to NASA, the definition of cosmology is “the scientific study of the large scale properties of the universe as a whole.”
149) According to Kepler’s Laws, all orbits of the planets are:
(a) ellipses
(b) parabolas
(c) hyperbolas
(d) square
Answer: (a)
Johannes Kepler, working with data painstakingly collected by Tycho Brahe without the aid of a telescope, developed three laws which described the motion of the planets across the sky.
1. The Law of Orbits: All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one focus.
2. The Law of Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
3. The Law of Periods: The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
Kepler’s laws were derived for orbits around the sun, but they apply to satellite orbits as well.
General Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III) Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AConstituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-II) | General Science & Ability
Click HERE for Q. No.1-50.
51) Planets are always small compared with stars because otherwise ______.
( a) the rotation of the planets would cause them to disintegrate
(b) the great mass of the planets would cause them to be pulled into their parent star
(c) the great mass of the planets would prevent them from being held in orbit and they would escape
(d) the planets would be stars themselves
Answer: (d)
52) The least likely reason why planetary systems have not been directly observed around stars other than the sun is that __
(a) Planets are small
(b) Planets shine by reflected light
(c) Planetary systems are rare
(d) Other stars are far away
Answer: (c)
53) Which of the following is the correct ordering of the inner planets according to their proximity to the sun? (CSS 2012)
(a) Jupiter, Saturn , Uranus , Neptune
(b) Phobos, Deimes , Europe , Tias
(c) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
54) The term ‘Blue Shift’ is used to indicate: (CSS 2009)
(a) Doppler effect in which an object appears bluer when it is moving towards the observer or observer is moving towards the object.
(b) Turning a star from white to blue
(c) In future sun would become blue
(d) Black hole was blue at its start
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
55) Which planet of our solar system is called as Morning star? (CSS 2008)
Answer: Venus
56) What is the diameter of the earth?
Answer: 12 756.2 kilometers
57) The number of natural satellites orbiting around the Mars is: (CSS 2002/2003)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 14
Answer: (b)
Mars has two natural satellites, discovered by Asaph Hall in 1877. The innermost of these, Phobos, is about 7 mi (11 km) in diameter and orbits the planet with a period far less than Mars’s period of rotation (7 hr 39 min), causing it to rise in the west and set in the east. The outer satellite, Deimos, is about 4 mi (6 km) in diameter.
58) All stars are of the same color
(False)
59) Our galaxy milky way is shaped like a large thick concave lens with a large central bulge (CSS 2002)
(True)
60) The coldest planet of the solar system is: (CSS 2000)
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Neptune d) Pluto
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
In the past, the title for “most frigid body” went to Pluto, as it was the farthest then-designated planet from the Sun. However, due to the IAU’s decision in 2006 to reclassify Pluto as a “dwarf planet”, the title has since passed to Neptune. As the eight planet from our Sun, it is now the outermost planet in the Solar System, and hence the coldest.
61) Venus is the smallest planet of the solar system. (CSS 1999)
(False)
62) Black hole is a hypothetical region of space having a gravitational pull so great that no matter or radiation can escape from it. (CSS 1998)
63) Our solar system has about — satellites. (CSS 1996)
(a) 35
(b) 179
(c) 96
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn. The largest of these moons is Ganymede, which is one of the Galilean Moons.
64) ——- cannot be nominated for the Nobel Prize. (CSS 1996)
(a) Physicists
(b) Economists
(c) Astronomers
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
65) The largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter. (CSS 1995)
66) Planet Mars has (CSS 1995)
(a) 1 Moon
(b) 2 Moons
(c) 4 Moons
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The moons of Mars are Phobos and Deimos. Both moons were discovered in 1877 by Asaph Hall Asaph Hall was about to give up his frustrating search for a Martian moon one August night in 1877, but his wife Angelina urged him on. He discovered Deimos the next night, and Phobos six nights after that. Ninety-four years later, NASA’s Mariner 9 spacecraft got a much better look at the two moons from its orbit around Mars. The dominant feature on Phobos, it found, was a crater 10 km (6 miles) wide — nearly half the width of the moon itself. It was given Angelina’s maiden name: Stickney.
67) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS 2007)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
68) This is the measure of moisture in the air.
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Altitude
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
69) This is the greatest amount of water vapor the air could hold at a certain temperature
(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable humidity
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Absolute humidity is the measure of water vapor (moisture) in the air, regardless of temperature. It is expressed as grams of moisture per cubic meter of air (g/m3).
The maximum absolute humidity of warm air at 30°C/86°F is approximately 30g of water vapor – 30g/m3. The maximum absolute humidity of cold air at 0°C/32°F is approximately 5g of water vapor – 5g/m3.
70) This is how much actual water vapor is in the air at a certain temperature.
(a)Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Relative humidity also measures water vapor but RELATIVE to the temperature of the air. It is expressed as the amount of water vapor in the air as a percentage of the total amount that could be held at its current temperature.
71) Humidity is measured with a
(a) Barometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
72) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS-2009)
(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolas Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
73) The most splendid and the most magnificent constellation on the sky is: (CSS-2009)
(a) Orion
(b) Columbia
(c) Canis Major
(d) Taurus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
(Canis Major is a constellation in the southern sky. Its name means “the greater dog” in Latin.) Orion, which is located on the celestial equator, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world.
74) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS-2009)
(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
75) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS-2009)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Most asteroids lie in a vast ring between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. This main asteroid belt holds more than 200 asteroids larger than 60 miles (100 kilometers) in diameter. Scientists estimate the asteroid belt also contains more than 750,000 asteroids larger than three-fifths of a mile (1 km) in diameter and millions of smaller ones. Not everything in the main belt is an asteroid — for instance, comets have recently been discovered there, and Ceres, once thought of only as an asteroid, is now also considered a dwarf planet.
76) The largest circular storm in our solar system is on the surface of which of the following planets?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Earth
Answer: (a)
Jupiter boasts the largest storm in the Solar System . It is called the Great Red Spot and has been observed for hundreds of years that kind of storm is dwarfed by the Great Red Spot, a gigantic storm in Jupiter. There, gigantic means twice as wide as Earth. Today, scientists know the Great Red Spot is there and it’s been there for a while, but they still struggle to learn what causes its swirl of reddish hues.
77) The biggest asteroid known is:
(a) Vesta
(b) Icarus
(c) Ceres
(d) Eros
Answer: (c)
Ceres, a dwarf planet and the largest asteroid in the solar system yet known. Discovered in 1801 and first thought to be a planet and then an asteroid, we now call Ceres a dwarf planet. Gravitational forces from Jupiter billions of years ago prevented it from becoming a full-fledged planet. But Ceres has more in common with Earth and Mars than its rocky neighbors in the main asteroid belt. There may even be water ice buried under Ceres’ crust.
78) Rounded to the nearest day, the Mercurian year is equal to:
(a) 111 days
(b) 87.97 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 25 days
Answer: (b)
Mercurian Year: A year on Mercury takes 87.97 Earth days; it takes 87.97 Earth days for Mercury to orbit the sun once
79) One of the largest volcanoes in our solar system-if not the largest-is named Olympus Mons. This volcano is located on:
(a) Jupiter’s moon Callisto
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn’s moon Titan
(d) Mars
Answer: (d)
Olympus Mons is the largest volcano in the solar system. The massive Martian mountain towers high above the surrounding plains of the red planet, and may be biding its time until the next eruption. Olympus Mons rises three times higher than Earth’s highest mountain, Mount Everest, whose peak is 5.5 miles above sea level.
80) One Jupiter day is equal to which of the following?
(a) 30 hrs 40 min
(b) 9 hrs 50 min
(c) 3 hrs 20 min
(d) 52 hrs 10 min
Answer: (b)
81) The time interval between two successive occurrences of a specific type of alignment of a planet (or the moon) with the sun and the earth is referred to as:
(a) a conjunction
(b) an opposition
(c) a sidereal period
(d) a synodic period.
Answer: (d)
Synodic period , in astronomy, length of time during which a body in the solar system makes one orbit of the sun relative to the earth, i.e. The synodic period of the moon, which is called the lunar month, or lunation, is 291/2 days long; it is longer than the sidereal month.
82) Of the following four times, which one best represents the time it takes energy generated in the core of the sun to reach the surface of the sun and be radiated?
(a) Three minutes
(b) Thirty days
(c) One thousand years
(d) One million years
Answer: (d)
83) The sunspot cycle is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 26 years
(d) 49 years
Answer: (b)
The amount of magnetic flux that rises up to the Sun’s surface varies with time in a cycle called the solar cycle. This cycle lasts 11 years on average. This cycle is sometimes referred to as the sunspot cycle.
84) The Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram of stars DIRECTLY compares what TWO of the following properties of stars?
(a) size
(b) temperature
(c) luminosity
(d) Both b & c
Answer: (d)
One of the most useful and powerful plots in astrophysics is the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (hereafter called the H-R diagram). It originated in 1911 when the Danish astronomer, Ejnar Hertzsprung, plotted the absolute magnitude of stars against their color (hence effective temperature). Independently in 1913 the American astronomer Henry Norris Russell used spectral class against absolute magnitude. Their resultant plots showed that the relationship between temperature and luminosity of a star was not random but instead appeared to fall into distinct groups.
The majority of stars, including our Sun, are found along a region called the Main Sequence. Main Sequence stars vary widely in effective temperature but the hotter they are, the more luminous they are, hence the main sequence tends to follow a band going from the bottom right of the diagram to the top left. These stars are fusing hydrogen to helium in their cores. Stars spend the bulk of their existence as main sequence stars. Other major groups of stars found on the H-R diagram are the giants and supergiants; luminous stars that have evolved off the main sequence, and the white dwarfs. Whilst each of these types is discussed in detail in later pages we can use their positions on the H-R diagram to infer some of their properties.
85) The Andromeda Galaxy is which of the following types of galaxies?
(a) elliptical
(b) spiral
(c) barred-spiral
(d) irregular
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy also known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 780 kilo parsecs (2.5 million light-years) from Earth
86) About how many light years across is the Milky Way? Is it:
(a) 1,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 100,000
(d) 1,000,000
Answer: (c)
100 000 light years across
A light-year is precisely equal to a whole number of meters, namely 9460730472580800 m or approximately 9.46073 1015 m. That’s the distance traveled by light in a vacuum, at a speed of 299792458 m/s, during a “scientific year” of 31557600 s. All these numbers are exact… In particular, “Einstein’s Constant” is exactly c = 299792458 m/s, because of the latest definition of the meter, officially adopted in 1983.
87) Who was the first man to classify stars according to their brightness. Was it:
(a) Aristarchus
(b) Pythagoras
(c) Copernicus
(d) Hipparchus
Answer: (d)
The first person to classify stars by their apparent magnitude (brightness) was Hipparchus in about 130 BC. He divided the stars into classes based on how bright they appeared in the night sky. The brightest stars were classified as magnitude 1, those that were just visible to the naked eye as magnitude 6. In practice the intensity of a magnitude 1 star is 100 times that of a magnitude 6 star, so the 5 magnitude steps correspond to a multiple of 100. For a geometric series of magnitudes each magnitude must be a times the intensity of the previous one with a5 – 100. This means that going up one magnitude increases the intensity by a factor of a = 2.51. So magnitude 3 is 2.51 times as intense as magnitude 4 and so on.
88) For what reason was the Schmidt telescope specially built? Was it to serve as:
(a) a sky camera
(b) a radio telescope
(c) an optical telescope
(d) a solar telescope
Answer: (a)
A Schmidt camera, also referred to as the Schmidt telescope, is a catadioptric astrophotographic telescope designed to provide wide fields of view with limited aberrations. The design was invented by Bernhard Schmidt in 1930.
89) The greatest distance of a planet from the sun is called what? Is it the planet’s:
(a) aphelion
(b) perihelion
(c) helix
(d) eccentricity
Answer: (a)
The closest point to the Sun in a planet’s orbit is called perihelion. The furthest point is called aphelion
90) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars as compared to the atmospheric pressure of the earth? Is it:
(a) about the same as the earth’s
(b) about 100 times as great as the earth’s
(c) about 1/200th that of the earth’s
(d) half as much as that of the earth’s
Answer: (c)
The atmosphere and (probably) the interior of Mars differ substantially from that of the Earth. The atmosphere is much less dense and of different composition, and it is unlikely that the core is molten.
The atmosphere has a pressure at the surface that is only 1/200 that of Earth. The primary component of the atmosphere is carbon dioxide (95%), with the remainder mostly nitrogen. Seasonal heating drives strong winds that can reach 100 mph or more, stirring up large dust storms. Clouds form in the atmosphere, but liquid water cannot exist at the ambient pressure and temperature of the Martian surface: water goes directly between solid and vapor phases without becoming liquid.
91) A typical galaxy, such as our Milky Way galaxy, contains how many billion stars? Is it approximately:
(a) 10 billion
(b) 40 billion
(c) 400 billion
(d) 800 billion
Answer: (c)
According to astronomers, our Milky Way is an average-sized barred spiral galaxy measuring up to 120,000 light-years across. Our Sun is located about 27,000 light-years from the galactic core in the Orion arm. Astronomers estimate that the Milky Way contains up to 400 billion stars of various sizes and brightness.
According to astronomers, there are probably more than 170 billion galaxies in the observable Universe, stretching out into a region of space 13.8 billion light-years away from us in all directions.
92) A comet’s tail points in which direction?
(a) toward the sun
(b) toward the earth
(c) behind the comet in its orbit
(d) away from the sun
Answer: (d)
Comet tails are expansions of the coma. Comet tails point away from the Sun, regardless of the direction in which the comet is traveling. Comets have two tails because escaping gas and dust are influenced by the Sun in slightly different ways, and the tails point in slightly different directions.
93) Spectral line splitting due to the influence of magnetic fields is called:
(a) Boltzmann Effect
(b) Zeeman Effect
(c) Planck Effect
(d) Zanstra’s Effect
Answer: (b)
The Zeeman effect is the splitting of a spectral line by a magnetic field. That is, if an atomic spectral line of 400 nm was considered under normal conditions, in a strong magnetic field, because of the Zeeman effect, the spectral line would be split to yield a more energetic line and a less energetic line, in addition to the original line at 400 nm.
94) Which of the following is true for ORION? Orion is:
(a) the brightest star in the sky
(b) a constellation
(c) the name given to a NASA spacecraft
(d) an asteroid
Answer: (b)
95) Which of the following men wrote the book “On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres”?
(a) Kepler
(b) Euclid
(c) Copernicus
(d) Newton
Answer: (c)
De revolutionibus orbium coelestium (On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres) is the seminal work on the heliocentric theory of the Renaissance astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus (1473–1543).
96) The most distant planet in the solar system is (CSS 1995)
(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
New Dwarf Planet In Our Solar System May Be The Farthest One Yet. Object V774104 was discovered in late October, 2015, and is one of the most distant objects ever detected in the solar system. It appears to be about half the size of Pluto, but with an orbit two to three times larger than Pluto’s. (Nov 12, 2015)
97) The 2.7 Kelvin cosmic background radiation is concentrated in the:
(a) radio wavelengths
(b) infrared
(c) visible
(d) ultraviolet
Answer: (a)
98) If you were watching a star collapsing to form a black hole, the light would disappear because it:
(a) is strongly red shifted
(b) is strongly blue shifted
(c) its color suddenly becomes black
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
99) The Magellanic Clouds are
(a) irregular galaxies
(b) spiral galaxies
(c) elliptical galaxies
(d) large clouds of gas and dust
Answer: (a)
The Magellanic Clouds are comprised of two irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud (SMC), which orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million years and each other once every 900 million years. Lying only about 200,000 light years away, they were the closest known galaxies to the Milky Way until recently, when the Sagittarius and Canis Major dwarf galaxies were discovered and found to be even closer.
100) According to Kepler’s Laws, the cube of the mean distance of a planet from the sun is proportional to the:
(a) area that is swept out
(b) cube of the period
(c) square of the period
(d) fourth power of the mean distance
Answer: (c)
Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-II) | General Science & Ability Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AGeneral Knowledge about Cities Famous Second Names
• Brasilia of Pakistan is called to *Islamabad.*
• City of angles is called to *Bangkok.*
• City of bazaars is called to *Cairo.*
• City of colleges is called to *Lahore.*
• City of conference is called to *Geneva.*
• City of cosmonauts is called to *Moscow.*
• City of eternal spring is called to *Quito.*
• City of golden temple is called to *Amritsar.*
• City of Golden Gate is called to *San Francisco.*
• City of mosques is called to *Dhaka.*
• City of parks is called to *Kiev.*
• City of pope is called to *Rome.*
• City of space flights is called to *Cape Kennedy.*
• Forbidden City is called to *Lahaska.*
• Gateway to the east is called to *Beirut.*
• Gateway to the gulf is called to *Abu Dhabi.*
• Gateway to India is called to *Bombay.*
• Gateway to Pakistan is called to *Karachi.*
• Little Pakistan is called to *Bradford.*
• *Manchester of Pakistan is called to *Faisalabad.*
• Rose pink city is called to *Jaipur.*
• Windy city is called to *Chicago.*
• Lusitanian is the alternative name of *Portugal.*
• Emerald Island is called to *Ireland.*
• Land of Prophets is called to *Palestine.*
• *Yellow River* is known as China’s Sorrow because of devastating floods.
• Gibraltar of the west is said to *Quebec.*
• Zambia is known as *”country of Copper”*
• Albania means *the “Land of Eagles”.*
• Argentian means *“Like Silver”.*
• Bahrain means *two seas*.
• Brazil means
*“Red wood”.*
• Costa Rica means
*“Rich coast”.*
• Cyprus means
*“Land of copper”.*
• Guuatnemala mean
*“Land of Eagles”.*
• Jamaica means
*“Good water”.*
• Kuwait means
*“Fort”.*
• Liberia means
*“Land of free people”.*
• Netherlands means
*“low land”.*
• Nigeria means
*“A great river”.*
• Sierra Leone means
*“Lion Mountains”.*
• Singapore means
*”city of lions”.*
• Sudan means
*“Land of black people”.*
• Which country is popularly called ‘The Land of the Maple Leaf’?
*Canada*
• Mistress of the Eastern Seas is epithet referred to *Sri Lanka.*
• Hong Kong is called as *Pearl
General Knowledge about Cities Famous Second Names Read More »
General KnowledgeConstituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability
The universe, Galaxy, Light Year, Solar System, Sun, Earth, Astronomical System of Units
1) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)
(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
In terms of mass, volume, and surface area, Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System by a wide margin.
Size and Mass:
Jupiter’s mass, volume, surface area and mean circumference are 1.8981 x 1027 kg, 1.43128 x 1015 km3, 6.1419 x 1010 km2, and 4.39264 x 105 km respectively. To put that in perspective, Jupiter diameter is roughly 11 times that of Earth, and 2.5 the mass of all the other planets in the Solar System combined.
2) The universe is ———-. (CSS 1996)
(a) Stationary
(b) Expanding
(c) Contracting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In June 2016, NASA and ESA scientists reported that the universe was found to be expanding 5% to 9% faster than thought earlier, based on studies using the Hubble Space Telescope
3) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)
(a) . 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) . 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Moon has no atmosphere. None. That’s why astronauts have to wear their spacesuits when they get outside of their spacecraft on the surface of the Moon.
Atmosphere of the Moon might be electro statically levitated moon dust. These tiny particles are constantly leaping up and down off the surface of the Moon.
4) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?
(a) Edwin Hubble
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar
(d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: (a)
The Hubble Space Telescope was named after astronomer Edwin Powell Hubble (1889–1953), who made some of the most important discoveries in modern astronomy. Dr. Hubble determined that the farther a galaxy is from Earth, the faster it appears to move away. This notion of an “expanding” universe formed the basis of the Big Bang theory, which states that the universe began with an intense burst of energy at a single moment in time — and has been expanding ever since.
5) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer: (a)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn.
6) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?
(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer: (c)
Venus is the only planet that rotates clockwise. Venus (radius 3,760.4 miles) is similar to Earth (radius 3,963.19 miles) in size and structure but spins very slowly; a day on Venus is 243 Earth days long.
7) Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their sizes?
(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Jupiter (69,911 km / 43,441 miles) – 1,120% the size of Earth
Saturn (58,232 km / 36,184 miles) – 945% the size of Earth
Uranus (25,362 km / 15,759 miles) –400% the size of Earth
Neptune (24,622 km / 15,299 miles) – 388% the size of Earth
Earth (6,371 km / 3,959 miles)
8) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is
(a) 50 Million years
(b) 100 Million years
(c) 250 Million years
(d) 365 Million years
Answer: (c)
the Sun is dragging us around the galaxy at around 800,000km/h, taking around 250 million years to complete a single orbit.
That means our Solar System has made around 18 complete circuits since it was formed around 4.5 billion years ago.
9): The planet having the largest diameter is
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer: (b)
Jupiter is composed primarily of gaseous and liquid matter. It is the largest of the four giant planets in the Solar System and hence its largest planet. It has a diameter of 142,984 km (88,846 mi) at its equator
10) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun is (CSS 2010)
(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 98 days
(d) 60 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A year on Mercury is just 88 days long. One solar day (the time from noon to noon on the planet’s surface) on Mercury lasts the equivalent of 176 Earth days while the sidereal day (the time for 1 rotation in relation to a fixed point) lasts 59 Earth days. Mercury is nearly tidally locked to the Sun and over time this has slowed the rotation of the planet to almost match its orbit around the Sun. Mercury also has the highest orbital eccentricity of all the planets with its distance from the Sun ranging from 46 to 70 million km.
11) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)
(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. Jupiter has a mean radius of 43,440.7 miles (69,911 kilometers), about a tenth that of the sun. However, its rapid rotation — it spins once every 9.8 hours
12) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)
(a) 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Apollo 17 mission deployed an instrument called the Lunar Atmospheric Composition Experiment (LACE) on the moon’s surface. It detected small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.
13) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS 2009)
(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.
14) The sun produces most of its energy by (CSS 2012)
(a) Nuclear fusion which involves converting “H” to “He”
(b) Nuclear fission involving the burning of uranium & plutonium
(c) Nuclear fission involving the combining of uranium and palladium
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Sun, like all stars, is able to create energy because it is essentially a massive fusion reaction.
The core of the Sun is the region that extends from the center to about 20–25% of the solar radius. It is here, in the core, where energy is produced by hydrogen atoms (H) being converted into molecules of helium (He) This is possible thanks to the extreme pressure and temperature that exists within the core, which are estimated to be the equivalent of 250 billion atmospheres (25.33 trillion KPa) and 15.7 million kelvin, respectively.
15) Although the mass of a man on moon remains same as on the earth he will (CSS 2012)
(a) Be much happier there
(b) Weigh one sixth as much
(c) Weigh twice as much
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The Moon’s gravity is one sixth of the Earth’s gravity. A 120 kg astronaut weighs 1200 N on Earth. On the Moon they would weigh only 200 N. The astronaut’s mass is 120kg wherever they are.
16) The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon is: (CSS 2011)
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
17): The earth rotates 011 its axis from_
(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (d)
The Earth rotates from the west towards east. As viewed from North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.
18): Name two planets which revolve around their axis from east to west
(a) Earth and Venus
(b) Mars and Earth
(c) Venus and Uranus
(d) Mars and Uranus
Answer: (c)
Planets have no light of their own and all of them expect Venus and Uranus, rotate upon their axis from west to east.
19) Our sun is classified as (CSS 2012)
(a) A Blue giant
(b) A Yellow dwarf
(c) Supernova
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star, or G dwarf star, or more imprecisely, a yellow dwarf. Actually, the sun — like other G-type stars — is white, but appears yellow through Earth’s atmosphere. Stars generally get bigger as they grow older
20): Name the planet which revolve approximately 90 degree with its orbital plane_.
(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
Unlike any other planet, Uranus rotates on its side. That is, the rotation axis is tilted approximately 90 degrees relative to the planet’s orbital plane.
21): The hottest planet of our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Earth
Answer: (b)
Venus’s thick atmosphere made up mainly of CO2 makes it the hottest planet in the solar system. Mercury is colder because it’s atmosphere is thin.
22): Which of the following constellation contains Pole Star?
(a) Orion
(b) Ursa Major
(c) Ursa Minor
(d) Scorpio
Answer: (b)
23): All the stars appear to move from
(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (c)
Every day, the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west. Actually, these celestial objects aren’t moving that fast, but Earth is. It spins on its axis from west to east approximately every 24 hours.
Because we are standing on Earth’s surface, we move along with it. To us, it appears as if everything in the sky is moving from east to west.
24): The body burning like a star and coming towards the earth
(a) Comet
(b) Meteor
(c) Ceres
(d) Satellites
Answer: (b)
Fleeting trails of light are called meteors or shooting stars and they are created by small particles, some no bigger than a grain of rice, as they are completely burned up high in the atmosphere: about 100 km (or 60 miles) above the Earth. They are over literally in the blink of an eye. Space debris is collectively termed meteoroids, those larger fragments that reach the ground are called meteorites. Very big meteoroids are also known as asteroids. If one collides with Earth it would cause a major catastrophe.
25) Which of the following is not true?
(a) Planets rotate on their own axis.
(b) Planets do not emit light.
(c) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky
(d) Most of the planets have rings around them.
Answer: (d)
26) Which is the brightest planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth. Venus can often be seen within a few hours after sunset or before sunrise as the brightest object in the sky (other than the moon)
27) The stars in space are ___.
(a) Uniformly spread out.
(b) Distributed completely at random
(c) Chiefly in the Milky Way
(d) Mostly contained within widely separated galaxies
Answer: (d)
28) “Black holes” refer to: (CSS 2009)
(a) Hole occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing objects of high density
(d) Collapsing of low density
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
29) The Milky Way is _____.
( a) a gas cloud in the solar system
(b) a gas cloud in the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(c) the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(d) a nearby galaxy
Answer: (c)
30) Relative to the center of our galaxy, ____.
( a) its starts are stationary
(b) its stars move entirely at random
(c) its stars revolve
(d) Population I starts are stationary and Population II star revolve
Answer: (c)
31) Evidence of various kinds suggests that at the center of our galaxy is a ___.
( a) Quasar
(b) Pulsar
(c) Neutron star
(d) Black hole
Answer: (d)
A supermassive black hole (SMBH) is the largest type of black hole, in the order of hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses (M☉), and is found in the centre of almost all currently known massive galaxies. In the case of the Milky Way, the SMBH corresponds with the location of Sagittarius A*
32) A radio telescope is basically a (an) __.
(a) device for magnifying radio waves
(b) Telescope remotely controlled by radio
(c) Directional antenna connected to a sensitive radio receiver
(d) Optical telescope that uses electronic techniques to produce an image
Answer: (c)
Radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system that is used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. Because radio wavelengths are much longer than those of visible light, radio telescopes must be very large in order to attain the resolution of optical telescopes.
The first radio telescope, built in 1937 by Grote Reber of Wheaton
33) Sun is a: (CSS 2011)
(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Satellite
(d) Aurora
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
The Sun (or Sol), is the star at the centre of our solar system
The Sun is by far the largest object in the solar system. It contains more than 99.8% of the total mass of the Solar System (Jupiter contains most of the rest).
34) The age of the solar system is (CSS 2011)
(a) 4.5 billion years
(b) 5.5 billion years
(c) 6.5 billion years
(d) 7.5 billion years
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
By studying several things, mostly meteorites, and using radioactive dating techniques, specifically looking at daughter isotopes, scientists have determined that the Solar System is 4.6 billion years old. Well, give or take a few million years. That age can be extended to most of the objects and material in the Solar System.
35) An eclipse of the sun occurs when (CSS 2011)
(a) The moon is between the sun and the earth
(b) The sun is between the earth and the moon
(c) The earth is between the sun and the moon
(d) The earth casts its shadow on the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.
36) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS 2009)
(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolaus Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
Considered today to be the father of modern astronomy, Nicolaus Copernicus was born on February 19, 1473 in Torun, Poland.
37) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is: (CSS 2009)
(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 2 years
(d) 98 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days (87.969 to be exact), which means a single year is 88 Earth days – or the equivalent of about 0.241 Earth years. But here’s the thing. Because of Mercury’s slow rotation (once every 58.646 days) and its rapid orbital speed (47.362 km/s), one day on Mercury actually works out to 175.96 Earth days.
38) Primary cosmic rays are composed largely of very fast ___.
( a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (a)
Of primary cosmic rays, which originate outside of Earth’s atmosphere, about 99% are the nuclei (stripped of their electron shells) of well-known atoms, and about 1% are solitary electrons (similar to beta particles). Of the nuclei, about 90% are simple protons, i. e. hydrogen nuclei; 9% are alpha particles, identical to helium nuclei, and 1% are the nuclei of heavier elements, called HZE ions
39) Cosmic rays ____.
(a) Circulate freely through space
(b) are trapped in our galaxy by electric fields
(c) are trapped in our galaxy by magnetic fields
(d) are trapped in our galaxy by gravitational fields
Answer: (c)
40) The red shift in the spectral lines of light reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ______.
( a) are moving closer to one another
(b) are moving farther apart from one another
(c) are in rapid rotation
(d) Consist predominantly of red giant stars
Answer: (b)
41) According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, the universe _____.
( a) Must be expanding
(b) Must be contracting
(c) Must be either expanding or contracting
(d) May be neither expanding nor contracting
Answer: (c)
42) Supernova explosions have no connection with _______.
( a) The formation of heavy elements
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) Pulsars
(d) Quasars
Answer: (d)
43) Current ideas suggest that what is responsible for the observed properties of a quasar is a massive ____.
(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Spiral galaxy
(d) Star cluster
Answer: (b)
44) The age of the universe is probably in the neighborhood of ______.
( a) 15 million years
(b) 4 ½ billion years
(c) 15 billion years
(d) 30 billion years
Answer: (c)
45) The term big bang refers to ___.
( a) the origin of the universe
(b) the ultimate fate of the universe
(c) a supernova explosion
(d) the formation of a quasar
Answer: (a)
46) The elements heavier than hydrogen and helium of which the planets are composed probably came from the __.
( a) Sun
(b) Debris of supernova explosions that occurred before the solar system came into being
(c) Big bang
(d) Big crunch
Answer: (b)
47) Today the universe apparently contains ____.
( a) Only matter
(b) Only antimatter
(c) Equal amounts of matter and antimatter
(d) Slightly more matter than antimatter
Answer: (a)
48) Radiation from the early history of the universe was Doppler-shifted by the expansion of the universe until today it is in the form of _______.
( a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Infrared waves
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (d)
49) Present evidence suggests that most of the mass of the universe is in the form of ______.
( a) Dark matter
(b) Luminous matter
(c) Cosmic rays
(d) Black holes
Answer: (a)
50) It is likely that the planets, satellites, and other members of the solar system were formed ________.
(a) Together with the sun
(b) Later than the sun from material it ejected
(c) Later than the sun from material it captured from space
(d) Elsewhere and were captured by the sun
Answer: (a)
Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A
100 MCQs About World History
100 MCQs About World History
1. What is the oldest daily newspaper in England? – The Times
2. Which two American states joined the union in 1959? – Alaska and Hawaii
3. Which American President ordered the dropping of the first atomic bomb? – Harry S Truman
4. In which century did King George IV rule Great Britain? – 18th
5. After which famous person in history was the teddy bear named? – Theodore Roosevelt
6. What was the name given to the trials of 24 Nazi leaders for war crimes in 1945? – The Nuremberg Trials
7. In what century was the Taj Mahal built? – 17th
8. Which gangster said ‘I’ve been accused of every death except the casualty list of the World War’? – Al Capone
9. In what year was Prince William born? – 1982
10. The word ‘book’ originates from the middle English word ‘bok’ meaning which type of
tree? – Beech
11. Richard Byrd is credited with having been the first person to fly over what particular spot
in the world? – The North Pole
12. Why don’t the restaurants ‘Palm Court’, ‘Cafe Parisien’ and ‘Verandah’ exist anymore? – They were on the Titanic
13. What city was the capital of Poland between 1320 and 1611? – Krakow
14. Who was the first President of America? – George Washington
15. Which American President served only 31 days? – William Harrison
16. When the first World War broke out which three countries made up the Triple Entente? –
France, England and Russia
17. What is Adam’s ale or Adam’s wine? – Water
18. Who were the mother and father of Elizabeth I? – Anne Boleyn and Henry VIII
19. Which British Prime Minister resigned because of the Suez crisis? – Anthoney Eden
20. For what was Rosa Parks arrested in 1955, leading to the biggest US Civil Rights
movement? – Refusing to give up her seat on a bus for a white man
21. John Major became a member of Parliament in 1979 for which town, north of London? –
Huntingdon
22. Which American President was shot in 1901 and died 8 days later? – McKinley
23. The Battle of Bosworth in 1485 was the last battle of which series of wars? – The Wars Of The Roses
24. The explorer Sir Edmund Hillary was from which country? – New Zealand
25. The popular British pub name ‘The Royal Oak’ is named after which King? – Charles II (he hid in an oak tree to escape enemies)
26. Collectively, by what name are Carole Richardson, Patrick Armstrong, Paul Hill and Gerard Conlon better known? – The Guildford Four
27. In which century was the world’s first public railway opened? – 19th
28. The invention of what in 1867, made Alfred Nobel famous? – Dynamite
29. What was King William II killed by? An arrow, the plague or old age? – An Arrow
30. In Greek mythology, who was the goddess of marriage, women and childbirth? – Hera
31. In what year did Margaret Thatcher become Prime Minister? – 1979
32. In what year was London due to host the Olympic Games, but couldn’t because of the Second World War? – 1944
33. On March 3rd, 1991, who was severly beaten by Los Angeles police officers causing public outcry? – Rodney King
34. Which king was the target of the Gunpowder plot of 1605? – James I
35. What alloy was the most important metal for tools and weapons between the years 4000
and 2000 B.C.? – Bronze
36. In which year did Tony Blair first become British Prime Minister? – 1997
37. Who was the first US President to meet with a reigning British monarch? – Woodrow Wilson
38. In which month in 1914, did Britain declare war on Germany? – August
39. Thomas Chippendale was best known for making and designing what in the 18th century? – Furniture
40. What historic event does the nursery rhyme ‘Ring-a-ring of roses’ commemorate? – The Great Plague
41. In which year did colour TV transmissions begin in Britain? – 1969
42. As at the year 2001, who has been the tallest American President? – Abraham Lincoln
43. Which famous London department store opened on 15th March, 1909? – Selfridges
44. Which of the following occurred most recently? The Iron Age or The Bronze Age? – Iron Age
45. Who is the only American President to have served non-consecutive terms in office? – Grover Cleveland
46. In which country did the cloning of Dolly the sheep take place? – Scotland
47. Who ordered the beheading of Mary Queen Of Scots? – Queen Elizabeth I
48. Which English queen was married to Lord Guildford Dudley? – Lady Jane Grey
49. Which geographical location was the first word spoken on the moon? – Houston
50. What was Hitler’s title as the leader of Nazi Germany? – Fuhrer
51. What was the surname of Zachary, the President of the USA between 1849 and 1850? –Taylor
52. How many of Henry VIII’s wives had been previously married? – 2
53. Who did Queen Elizabeth I succeed to the throne? – Mary I
54. In which war was the Victoria Cross first awarded? – The Crimean War
55. In which century did the diamond engagement ring first become popular? – 15th
56. Which country declared war on both Germany and the Allies in World War II? – Italy
57. Which two brothers are associated with the invention of the aeroplane? – Orville and Wilbur Wright
58. By what title was Oliver Cromwell known? – Lord Protector
59. In 1978, what was Sweden’s most profitable export, ahead of Volvo? – Abba
60. What was the name of the bomb which was dropped on Nagasaki during World War II? – Fat Man
61. How did Robert The Bruce die? – Of the disease leprosy
62. Which famous museum opened in London, in April 1928? – Madam Tussauds
63. In Greek mythology, what was unusual about Medusa’s hair? – It was made of snakes
64. In America, what became the 49th state to enter the union in 1959? – Alaska
65. Which district of London was named after a battle fought in 1815? – Waterloo
66. In what year did the first successful Mars landings take place? – 1976
67. For how many years did the Jurassic period last? – 180 million
68. In which century was Mary, Queen Of Scots executed? – 16th
69. Who was the first American President to visit China? – Richard Nixon
70. Parker and Barrow were the surnames of which famous couple? – Bonnie and Clyde
71. What type of animal was the first to be sent into space? – A dog
72. For what reason did American Sally Ride become famous in 1983? – First American female in space
73. In which year did Richard Nixon begin the secret bombing of Cambodia? – 1969
74. Which famous person in history invented the greeting, ‘Hello’ first used for answering the telephone? – Thomas Edison
75. Who was the famous son of the Greek princess Olympias? – Alexander The Great
76. What were the names of Adam and Eve’s three sons? – Cain, Abel and Seth
77. Which war was called the ‘War to end all wars’? – World War I
78. In what year did Laika the dog become the first space traveller? – 1957
79. Which country in Europe has the oldest Parliament? – Iceland
80. Who was the third President of America and chief author of the Declaration Of Independence? – Thomas Jefferson
81. In what year was the battle of Agincourt? – 1415
82. By what name was the Scottish outlaw Robert McGregor better known? – Rob Roy
83. In 1969, what became the first song to be sung in outer space? – Happy Birthday
84. By what name was Sir Arthur Wellesley better known? – Duke of Wellington
85. What was the name of the suffragette who threw herself under the King’s horse in the
1913 Derby? – Emily Davison
86. What was the profession of Alexander Graham Bell, inventor of the telephone? – Teacher (of deaf and dumb children)
87. Which country suffered over 6 million deaths in World War II, equivalent to over 17% of
it’s population? – Poland
88. Which English King was killed by an arrow at the battle of Hastings? – King Harold
89. Who was murdered by Robert Ford? – Jesse James
90. In what year were protesting students murdered in Tiananman Square? – 1989
91. Which US President was forced to resign because of the Watergate scandal? – Richard Nixon
92. Which monarch’s last words were ‘All my possessions for a moment of time’? – Elizabeth I
93. What happened in 1847 that is sometimes referred to as ‘Black Forty Seven’? – The potato famine in Ireland
94. In which country did Venetian blinds originate? Italy, India or Japan? – Japan
95. In which country was Mother Theresa born? – Yugoslavia
96. Who was the first American President to die while in office? – William Harrison
97. What was the maiden name of the bride at the first wedding watched by over 750 million
people? – Diana Spencer
98. Who was Queen Elizabeth II’s father? – George VI
99. Which famous raid did Guy Gibson lead in 1943? – The Dambusters
100. Who, in 1901, was the first man to send a Radio Telegraph signal across the Atlantic
Ocean? – Guglielmo Marconi
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Abdus Salam Quiz
Abdus Salam Quiz Questions
(Some sources claim Abdus Salam was born in Santokdas.)
1. When did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
a) 1972
b) 1979
c) 1984
d) 1986
2. When was Abdus Salam born?
a) 29 January 1926
b) 2 May 1914
c) 19 September 1918
d) 21 December 1922
3. Where was Abdus Salam born?
a) Ludhiana
b) Peshawar
c) Jhang Maghiana
d) Multan
4. Which college did Abdus Salam attend in 1940-1944?
a) Anglo-Mohammedan College
b) King Edward Medical College
c) Aitchison College
d) Government College
5. Where was Abdus Salam professor of theoretical physics in 1957-1960?
a) Lahore College for Women
b) Imperial College of Science and Technology
c) Hailey College of Commerce
d) California Institute of Technology
6. What was set up on 16 September 1961 on the advice of Abdus Salam?
a) Pakistan Atomic Energy Commission
b) International Centre for Theoretical Physics
c) Pakistan Academy of Sciences
d) Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission
7. For what did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
a) Formulating the electroweak theory
b) Discovery of argon
c) Spectroscopic and metrological investigations
d) Development of wireless telegraphy
8. When did Abdus Salam die?
a) 1 January 2001
b) 4 April 1998
c) 8 August 2002
d) 21 November 1996
9. Where did Abdus Salam die?
a) Karachi
b) Rawalpindi
c) Oxford
d) Faisalabad
10. The epitaph on Abdus Salam’s tomb read “First Muslim Nobel Laureate.” Which word was erased?
a) First
b) Muslim
c) Nobel
d) Laureate
Abdus Salam Quiz Questions with Answers
1. When did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
b) 1979
2. When was Abdus Salam born?
a) 29 January 1926
3. Where was Abdus Salam born?
c) Jhang Maghiana
4. Which college did Abdus Salam attend in 1940-1944?
d) Government College
5. Where was Abdus Salam professor of theoretical physics in 1957-1960?
b) Imperial College of Science and Technology
6. What was set up on 16 September 1961 on the advice of Abdus Salam?
d) Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission
7. For what did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
a) Formulating the electroweak theory
8. When did Abdus Salam die?
d) 21 November 1996
9. Where did Abdus Salam die?
c) Oxford
10. The epitaph on Abdus Salam’s tomb read “First Muslim Nobel Laureate.” Which word was erased?
b) Muslim
10 Golden Rules on Spelling Correction in English Grammar
Rule 1: When the suffix “full” is added to a word, one “ I” is removed.
Faith + full = faithful
Use + full= useful
Rule 2: If the word to which the suffix “full” is added ends in “ll”, one “I” is removed from the word also.
Skill +full = skilful
Will + full= wilful
Rule 3: Words of two or three syllables ending in single vowel + single consonant double the final consonant if the last syllable is stressed. Eg-
Permit + ed = permitted
Occur + ing =occurring
Control + ed =controlled
Begin + ing = beginning
Rule 4: Consonant ‘L’ is doubled in the words ending in single vowel + “I” before a suffix beginning with a vowel eg.
Signal + ing = signalling
Repel + ent = repellent
Quarrel + ed = quarrelled
Travel + er = traveller
Rule 5: Words ending in silent “e”, drop the “e” before a suffix beginning with a voweleg.
Hope + ing = hoping
Live + ed = lived
Drive + er = driver
Tire + ing= tiring
Rule 6: If the suffix begins with a consonant “e” is not dropped e.g
Hope + full = hopeful
Sincere + ly= sincerely
But,
True + ly = truly
Nine + th = ninth
Argue + ment = argument
Rule 7: A final “y” following a consonant changes to “i” before a suffix except “ing”. Eg.
Carry + ed = carried
Happy + ly = happily
Marry + age = marriage
Beauty + full = beautiful
But,
Marry + ing = marrying
Carry + ing = carrying
Rule 8: A final “y” following a vowel does not change before a suffix. Eg:
Obey + ed = obeyed
Play + er = player
Pray + ed= prayed
Rule 9: When the suffix “ous” is added to a word ending in “ce”, “e” is changed to “i”.
Space + ous= spacious
Vice + ous= vicious
Malice + ous = malicious
Grace + ous= gracious
Rule 10: When the suffix “ing” is added to a word ending in “ie”, “ie” is changed to “y”.
Lie + ing= lying
Die + ing = dying
Tie + ing= tying
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English, English Grammar