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History

Some Interesting Facts

English, General Knowledge, History, World /

1. Hot water will turn into ice faster than cold water.

2. The Mona Lisa has no eyebrows.

3. The sentence, “The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog” uses every letter in the English language (all 26 letters).

4. The strongest muscle in the body is the tongue.

5. Ant’s take rest for around 8 Minutes in 12 hour period.

6. “I Am” is the shortest complete sentence in the English language.

7. Coca-Cola was originally green.

8. The most common name in the world is Mohammed.

9. When the moon is directly overhead, you will weigh slightly less.

10. Camels have three eyelids to protect themselves from the blowing desert sand.

11. There are only two words in the English language that have all five vowels in order: “abstemious” and “facetious.”

12. The name of all the continents end with the same letter that they start with.

13. There are two credit cards for every person in the United States.

14. TYPEWRITER is the longest word that can be made using the letters only on one row of the keyboard.

15. Minus 40 degrees Celsius is exactly the same as minus 40 degrees Fahrenheit.

16. Chocolate can kill dogs, as it contains theobromine, which affects their heart and nervous system.

17. Women blink nearly twice as much as men!

18. You can’t kill yourself by holding your breath.

19. It is impossible to lick your elbow.

20. The Guinness Book of Records holds the record for being the book most often stolen from Public Libraries.

21. People say “Bless you” when you sneeze because when you sneeze, your heart stops for a millisecond.

22. It is physically impossible for pigs to look up into the sky.

23. The “sixth sick sheik’s sixth sheep’s sick” is said to be the toughest tongue twister in the English language.

24. “Rhythm” is the longest English word without a vowel.

25. If you sneeze too hard, you can fracture a rib. If you try to suppress a sneeze, you can rupture a blood vessel in your head or neck and die.

26. Each king in a deck of playing cards represents great king from history.
Spades – King David
Clubs – Alexander the Great,
Hearts – Charlemagne
Diamonds – Julius Caesar.

27. It is impossible to lick your elbow.

28. 111,111,111 x 111,111,111 = 12,345,678,987,654,321

29. If a statue of a person in the park on a horse has both front legs in the air, the person died in battle.
If the horse has one front leg in the air, the person died as a result of wounds received in battle.
If the horse has all four legs on the ground, the person died of natural causes.

30. What do bullet proof vests, fire escapes, windshield wipers and laser printers all have in common?
Ans. – All invented by women.

31. Question – This is the only food that doesn’t spoil. What is this?
Ans. – Honey

32. A crocodile cannot stick its tongue out.

33. A snail can sleep for three years.

34. All polar bears are left handed.

35. American Airlines saved $40,000 in 1987 by eliminating one olive from each salad served in first-class.

36. Butterflies taste with their feet.

37. Elephants are the only animals that can’t jump.

38. In the last 4000 years, no new animals have been domesticated.

39. On average, people fear spiders more than they do death.

40. Stewardesses is the longest word typed with only the left hand.

41. The ant always falls over on its right side when intoxicated.

42. The electric chair was invented by a dentist.

43. The human heart creates enough pressure when it pumps out to the body to squirt blood 30 feet.

44. Rats multiply so quickly that in 18 months, two rats could have over million descendants.

45. Wearing headphones for just an hour will increase the bacteria in your ear by 700 times.

46. The cigarette lighter was invented before the match.

47. Most lipstick contains fish scales.

48. Like fingerprints, everyone’s tongue print is different.

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English, General Knowledge, History, World

Girolamo Savonarola Quiz

Uncategorized /

Girolamo Savonarola was an Italian Dominican friar, Scholastic, religious and political reformer and an influential contributor to the politics of Florence from 1494 until his execution in 1498

Girolamo Savonarola Quiz Questions

1. When was Girolamo Savonarola born?
a) 4 February 1444
b) 15 April 1442
c) 21 September 1452
d) 30 November 1455

2. Where was Girolamo Savonarola born?
a) Ferrara
b) Pisa
c) Lepanto
d) Genoa

3. Which order did Girolamo Savonarola join?
a) Augustinian
b) Capuchin
c) Dominican
d) Benedictine

4. Who invaded Florence and overthrew Medici rule in 1494 as predicted by Girolamo Savonarola?
a) Charles VIII
b) Philip IV
c) Henry VI
d) Edward VI

5. Which party opposed Girolamo Savonarola?
a) Jacobin
b) Conservative
c) Labour
d) Arrabbiati
6. Who ordered Girolamo Savonarola to go to Bologna under pain of excommunication?
a) Julius II
b) Leo X
c) Alexander VI
d) Urban VIII

7. Which coalition against France Girolamo Savonarola did not want Florence to join?
a) Triple Alliance
b) Holy League
c) Grand Alliance
d) Catholic League

8. Who accepted the challenge of a Franciscan to ordeal by fire on the invalidity of Girolamo Savonarola’s excommunication?
a) Domenico da Pescia
b) Giordano Bruno
c) Lorenzo de Medici
d) Cesare Borgia

9. When did Girolamo Savonarola die?
a) 26 January 1499
b) 23 May 1498
c) 11 July 1503
d) 12 December 1515

10. Where did Girolamo Savonarola die?
a) Turin
b) Berne
c) Pavia
d) Florence

Girolamo Savonarola Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Girolamo Savonarola born?
c) 21 September 1452

2. Where was Girolamo Savonarola born?
a) Ferrara

3. Which order did Girolamo Savonarola join?
c) Dominican

4. Who invaded Florence and overthrew Medici rule in 1494 as predicted by Girolamo Savonarola?
a) Charles VIII

5. Which party opposed Girolamo Savonarola?
d) Arrabbiati

6. Who ordered Girolamo Savonarola to go to Bologna under pain of excommunication?
c) Alexander VI

7. Which coalition against France Girolamo Savonarola did not want Florence to join?
b) Holy League

8. Who accepted the challenge of a Franciscan to ordeal by fire on the invalidity of Girolamo Savonarola’s excommunication?
a) Domenico da Pescia

9. When did Girolamo Savonarola die?
b) 23 May 1498

10. Where did Girolamo Savonarola die?
d) Florence

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Francisco Pizarro Quiz Questions Answers

MCQs / Q&A /

Francisco Pizarro Quiz Questions

1. Where was Francisco Pizarro born?
a) Trujillo
b) Barcelona
c) Madrid
d) Casablanca

2. When did Francisco Pizarro first set sail from Spain?
a) 12 August 1492
b) 17 June 1536
c) 22 January 1538
d) 10 November 1509

3. Whom did Francisco Pizarro accompany in the discovery of the Pacific?
a) Christopher Columbus
b) Ferdinand Magellan
c) Vasco Nunez de Balboa
d) Vasco da Gama

4. What was Hernando de Luque, a partner of Francisco Pizarro?
a) Doctor
b) Merchant
c) Priest
d) Cobbler

5. Of which province was Francisco Pizarro made governor and captain general on 26 July 1529?
a) Catalonia
b) Galicia
c) Basques
d) New Castile

6. When did Francisco Pizarro capture Atahualpa?
a) 15 March 1526
b) 26 April 1548
c) 2 July 1524
d) 16 November 1532

7. Which empire was destroyed by Francisco Pizarro?
a) Mayan
b) Incan
c) Mughal
d) Roman

8. What did Francisco Pizarro call the city he founded on 18 January 1535?
a) City of Joy
b) City of the Kings
c) City of Misery
d) City of Hope

9. When did Francisco Pizarro die?
a) 4 January 1548
b) 26 June 1541
c) 6 August 1545
d) 9 December 1563

10. Where did Francisco Pizarro die?
a) Lima
b) San Sebastian
c) Los Alamos
d) San Domingo

Francisco Pizarro Quiz Questions with Answers

1. Where was Francisco Pizarro born?
a) Trujillo

2. When did Francisco Pizarro first set sail from Spain?
d) 10 November 1509

3. Whom did Francisco Pizarro accompany in the discovery of the Pacific?
c) Vasco Nunez de Balboa

4. What was Hernando de Luque, a partner of Francisco Pizarro?
c) Priest

5. Of which province was Francisco Pizarro made governor and captain general on 26 July 1529?
d) New Castile

6. When did Francisco Pizarro capture Atahualpa?
d) 16 November 1532

7. Which empire was destroyed by Francisco Pizarro?
b) Incan

8. What did Francisco Pizarro call the city he founded on 18 January 1535?
b) City of the Kings

9. When did Francisco Pizarro die?
b) 26 June 1541

10. Where did Francisco Pizarro die?
a) Lima.

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MCQs / Q&A

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-II)

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A /

Click HERE for previous questions.

An example of a shield volcano is
(a) Mount Fuji
(b) Mount Pinatubo
(c) Puy de Dome
(d) Mauna Loa
Answer: (d)
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean.Mauna Loa is a shield volcano that has erupted some three dozen times since its first well-documented eruption in 1843

Volcanoes that have erupted in historic times and are still likely to erupt, are known as
(a) Active volcanoes
(b) Dormant volcanoes
(c) Extinct volcanoes
(d) Instinct volcanoes
Answer: (b)

Top of magma is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Pipe
(d) Crater
Answer: (d)
A volcanic crater is a roughly circular depression in the ground caused by volcanic activity. It is typically a bowl-shaped feature within which occurs a vent or vents

Volcano that forms from column of magma is called a/an
(a) underwater volcano
(b) convergent volcano
(c) divergent volcano
(d) hot spot volcano
Answer: (d)

Reference to how thick a liquid is known as
(a) density
(b) conductivity
(c) viscosity
(d) volatility
Answer: (c)

Fluidity of lava is determined by amount of
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) silica
Answer: (d)

A flash flood is a flood that:
(a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
(b) occurs in urban areas
(c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
(d) is caused by the blocking of drains.
Answer: (c)
Flash floods are defined by the speed of flooding, not the source or location of flooding. While flash floods are often caused by heavy rainfall, they can also result from other events, such as drain blockages and bursts or the flooding of a river.

Monsoon is caused by: (CSS-2009)
(a) Seasonal reversal of winds
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Movement of clouds
(d) Rise in temperature
(e) Rain forests
Answer: (a)
The monsoon, which is essentially the seasonal reversal in wind direction, causes most of the rainfall received in Pakistan and some other parts of the world. The primary cause of monsoons is the difference between annual temperature trends over land and sea. The apparent position of the Sun with reference to the Earth oscillates from the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn. Thus the low pressure region created by solar heating also changes latitude. The northeast and southeast trade winds converge in this low pressure zone, which is also known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ. This low pressure regions sees continuous rise of moist wind from the sea surface to the upper layers of the atmosphere, where the cooling means the air can no longer hold so much moisture resulting in precipitation. The rainy seasons of East Asia, sub-Saharan Africa, Australia and the southern parts of North America coincide with the shift of ITCZ towards these regions.

A flood can vary in:
(a) size
(b) speed of water flow
(c) duration
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size, duration and water flow speed of floods can vary. The volume, rate of rise and areal extent (i.e. the total area under flood waters) of flooding can also vary.

When a river’s water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(d) it will flood.
Answer: (c)
River height is the level of water in a river as measured by a river gauging station and is expressed in meters above either the Australian Height Datum (i.e. mean sea level) or an alternative arbitrary ‘zero’ level, depending on the location.

The size of a flood is measured by:
(a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
(b) the level of water in a waterway or river
(c) a river gauging station
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size of a flood can be measured by the highest level that water in a waterway reaches, referred to as the ‘peak water level’ or ‘flood peak’. It can also be measured by the maximum water flow rate in a waterway, referred to as the ‘peak flow rate’ or ‘peak water flow’. Each of these variables can be measured using a river gauging station.

Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?
(a) The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative.
(b) The ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual.
(c) There is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (c)
In a La Niña event, the equatorial ocean surface off the coast of South America is abnormally cool, and the SOI is strongly positive. Trade winds blow strongly across the warm Pacific, picking up plenty of moisture and increasing the likelihood of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.

Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?
(a) bridges and other structures in waterways
(b) the size and windiness of a river
(c) vegetation in and around a river
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Many factors can affect the size of a flood, including rainfall intensity, weather conditions prior to a rainfall event, tidal and storm surges, dams and other man-made and natural water storages, catchment size and shape, soil types in a catchment, vegetation in and around a waterway, the size and windiness of a waterway, levees, bridges and other structures in waterways and catchments, and urbanization.

Seasons are generated by (CSS-2012)
(a) The movement of sun around the Milky Way
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun
(c) Relativistic Quantum
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

The 2010 floods had cost the Pakistan’s economy around
(a) $17b
(b) $11b
(c) $10b
(d) $13b
Answer: (c)
It estimates that just a little less than 1pc of Pakistan’s GDP is exposed to river floods every year. It is ranked 16th by the WRI on the list of the top 20 countries with the highest GDP exposure to river floods.
The World Resources Institute (WRI) says Pakistan falls 5th on the list of top 15 countries that account for 80pc of the population exposed to river-flood risk worldwide.

In Pakistan, the most expensive natural disaster is:
(a) Drought
(b) Floods
(c) Bushfires
(d) Cyclones.
Answer: (b)
Pakistan faces a major financing challenge arising from natural catastrophes, with flooding causing an estimated annual economic impact of between three and four per cent of the federal budget,” adds the report. It estimates the annual economic impact of flooding at between $1.2bn and $1.8bn, or 0.5-0.8pc of GDP.

Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
(a) dispersal of weed species
(b) erosion of soil
(c) release of pollutants into waterways
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Floods can have negative environmental consequences, such as soil erosion, release of pollutants and excess sediments and nutrients into waterways and the ocean, dispersal of weed species, and negative impacts on fish and other aquatic life. Floods can also have positive environmental consequences, such as recharging groundwater systems, filling wetlands, moving useful nutrients around the landscape, and triggering breeding events (for example, of water birds).

Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood, based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Floodplain hydraulic models and flood maps are used to estimate which areas will be inundated based on river height information. Satellite and radar images, rain gauges and river gauging stations are used to estimate river heights.

Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Weather forecasts for a small region are more accurate than those for a large region.
(b) Weather forecasts are more accurate in Melbourne than in Darwin.
(c) Forecasts of temperature are more accurate than forecasts of rainfall.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (a)
The accuracy of weather forecasts varies depending on lead time, the size of the region of interest, the weather variable being forecast, and the latitude of the region. Generally, temperature forecasts are more accurate than rainfall forecasts; the mid-latitudes are easier to forecast than the tropics; and it is generally easier to forecast rainfall over a large area (for example, a large catchment) than local rainfall (for example, a reservoir).

Which of the following is true? Flood warnings:
(a) should not be released until the information is certain
(b) should indicate what the threat is, what
(c) action should be taken, by whom and when
(d) are best if they come from a single source
(e) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Flood warnings should provide information on what the threat is, what action should be taken, by whom and when. While it is desirable for flood warnings to be accurate, warnings are predictions about the future, so there is inevitably some uncertainty. Accuracy needs to be balanced with timeliness, to allow enough time for appropriate action. Warnings are most likely to reach different audiences and to be heeded if they come from multiple trusted sources.

Flood risk refers to:
(a) the chance of a flood occurring
(b) the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters if a flood occurs
(c) the vulnerability of people and properties that are exposed to floodwaters
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk includes both the chance (or probability) of a flood occurring, and the consequences if a flood occurs. The consequences of a flood are in turn affected by the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters for a flood of a particular size, and the vulnerability of those people and properties. For example, a river might burst its banks regularly, but if this flooding occurs in an isolated area where there are no people or infrastructure, then the risk is low. Similarly, a river might flood very rarely, but if many people and properties are located near this river and they live in dwellings that are vulnerable to water damage, then the flood risk will be greater.

Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
(a) zonings and building regulations for new developments
(b) dams, detention basins and levees
(c) flood awareness and education programs
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk in new developments can be reduced by restricting the location of development (zonings) and placing controls (regulations) on development. In existing developed areas, risk can be reduced by modifying flood behaviour (for example, through dams, detention basins, levees, waterway modifications), property modification measures (for example, land filling, flood proofing, house raising, removing developments), and response modification measures (for example, upgrading flood evacuation routes, flood warnings, flood evacuation planning, flood education programs).

The Probable Maximum Flood is:
(a) an estimation of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location
(b) the maximum flood experienced in the last 100 years
(c) the maximum flood experienced in the last 200 years
(d) the maximum flood experienced since flood records have existed.
Answer: (d)
The Probable Maximum Flood (PMF) is an estimate of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location, under the most severe meteorological and hydrological conditions as they are currently understood.

In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
(a) population growth
(b) urbanization
(c) climate change
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
In the future, climate change is likely to result in an increased chance of flash floods and coastal inundation. Australia’s growing population and urbanization are likely to place increased pressure on our waterways and to increase the chance of flooding in cities and the number of properties and people exposed to floodwaters.

In the future, which of the following is unlikely?
(a) There will be an increased chance of flash flooding and coastal inundation.
(b) Flood risk will increase due to population growth and urbanization.
(c) Improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies will reduce the impacts of floods.
(d) We will be able to eliminate the risk of flooding.
Answer: (d)
It is not possible to eliminate the risk of flooding. Indeed, it is likely that flood risk will increase in the future due to climate change, population growth and urbanization. However, we can better manage flood risk through improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies, as well as improved land use planning, floodplain management and integrated water management.

Higher level of floods and droughts are led by
(a) sand storms
(b) lower precipitation
(c) higher precipitation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)

Approximately how fast do tsunami waves travel in the open ocean?
(a) 100 km/hour
(b) 1600 km/hour
(c) 200 km/hour
(d) 400 km/hour
(e) 800 km/hour
Answer: (e)

Tsunami waves travel between 500 and 950 km/hour.
What can cause a tsunami?
(a) Landslide
(b) Underwater earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) All of the above
Tsunamis are usually generated by undersea earthquakes at tectonic plate boundaries, but they can also be triggered by underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or even a giant meteor impact with the ocean.

Do all undersea earthquakes trigger a tsunami?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
An undersea earthquake creates a tsunami only if it is of sufficient force and there is a violent enough movement of the seafloor to displace a massive amount of water.

What does the word “tsunami” mean in Japanese?
(a) Tidal wave
(b) Harbor wave
(c) Killer wave
(d) Century wave
Answer: (b)
English word “tsunami” comes from the Japanese term for “harbor wave.” Tsunamis are not the same things as tidal waves and actually consist of a series of waves.

Witnesses have said that an approaching tsunami sounds like what?
(a) Firecrackers exploding
(b) A freight train
(c) Ice cracking
(d) Nothing—there is absolute silence
Answer: (b)
Many witnesses have described the sound of an approaching tsunami as being similar to a freight train’s.

What is the most active tsunami area?
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Caribbean Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Answer: (a)
Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common.

What is the deadliest tsunami ever recorded?
(a) The 1782 South China Sea tsunami
(b) The 1868 northern Chile tsunami
(c) The 1883 South Java Sea tsunami
(d) The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
Answer: (d)
In 2004 more than 200,000 people—the most ever recorded—died in an Indian Ocean tsunami that was triggered by an earthquake off Sumatra, Indonesia.

How fast can a tsunami travel?
(a) Up to 100 miles an hour (160 kilometers an hour)
(b) Up to 200 miles an hour (320 kilometers an hour)
(c) Up to 500 miles an hour (800 kilometers an hour
(d.) Up to 1,000 miles an hour (1,600 kilometers an hour)
Answer: (c)
Tsunamis race across the sea at up to 500 miles (805 kilometers) an hour—about as fast as a jet airplane. At that pace they can cross the entire expanse of the Pacific Ocean in less than a day.

Can you detect a tsunami in the open ocean?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
No. In the open ocean, the wave length of a tsunami is hundreds of miles long and only a few feet high. Boaters are safer out at sea during a tsunami than close to shore or tied up at port.

Where was the largest tsunami in history recorded?
(a) India
(b) Philippines
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Answer: (d)
In 1971 a wall of water 278 feet (84.7 meters) high surged past Ishigaki Island, Japan. It moved a 750-block of coral 1.5 miles (2.4 kilometers) closer to shore but did little other damage.

What is frequently a warning sign of an impending tsunami?
(a) Winds suddenly change direction
(b) The sky suddenly clears
(c) Seawater suddenly retreats from the shore
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
If the tsunami’s trough reaches shore first, it sucks the water seaward, exposing the seafloor suddenly. The wave’s crest usually hits shore about five minutes later. Recognizing this phenomenon—and getting to higher ground immediately—can save lives.

Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Vegetation
(d) Coal and minerals
Answer: (d)

Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

_____ of stratosphere provides protection to our life.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Argon
Answer: 3

The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are chiefly concentrated in the_______.
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Homosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer: (a)

Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
(a) Sandy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Loamy soil
Answer: (d)

Both power and manure are provided by _______.
(a) Thermal plants
(b) Nuclear plants
(c) Biogas plants
(d) Hydroelectric plants
Answer: (c)

In the atmosphere, the layer above the troposphere is _____.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (a)

______ is the major raw material for biogas.
(a) Plant leaves
(b) Cow dung
(c) Mud
(d) Grass
Answer: (b)

A biosphere reserve conserves and preserves_______.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Wild land
(c) Natural vegetation
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of_______.
(a) Copper
(b) Uranium
Answer: (b)

Sanctuaries are established to_______.
(a) Rear animals for milk
(b) Entrap animals
(c) Protect animals
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are brought to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. Unlike animal shelters, sanctuaries do not seek to place animals with individuals or groups, instead maintaining each animal until his or her natural death. At present there are 99 Wildlife Sanctuaries in Pakistan

The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.
(a) Extinction
(b) Clad
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Species diversity
Answer: (a)
In biology and ecology, extinction is the end of an organism or of a group of organisms (taxon), normally a species. The moment of extinction is generally considered to be the death of the last individual of the species, although the capacity to breed and recover may have been lost before this point.

Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Petrol
(c) Coal
(d) Uranium
Answer: (d)
Fossil fuels are sources of energy that have developed within the earth over millions of years. Because fossil fuels – oil, natural gas, and coal – take so long to form, they are considered nonrenewable

Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of_______.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Degradation
(c) Putrification
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
The biogas plant operating on the principle of a wet anaerobic fermentation process was selected for the determination of the composition of in-put raw material which is determinative for the final biogas quality. The biogas plant is designed as an accumulation through-flow device. The biogas production takes place during the wet fermentation process in the mesophile operation (average temperature 40°C). The produced biogas is used in a cogeneration unit. The biogas plant operates in automatic mode.

Floods can be prevented by_______.
(a) Afforestation
(b) Cutting the forests
(c) Tilling the land
(d) Removing the top soil
Answer: (a)
Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stand of trees in an area where there was no forest. Reforestation is the reestablishment of forest cover, either naturally (by natural seeding, coppice, or root suckers) or artificially (by direct seeding or planting).
Afforestation Trees are planted near to the river. This means greater interception of rainwater and lower river discharge. This is a relatively low cost option, which enhances the environmental quality of the drainage basin.

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Rules of Precis Writing

English, Guidelines /

Following are the rules of precis writing.

1) Read the given passage carefully at least three times in order to be able to grasp what the writer has said.

2) Underline the important points to be included in your precis. A point is important if it is intimately connected with the main subject and if it is essential for a clear exposition of the theme.

3) Use your own language in the precis. While words and phrases from the original may be used in the precis. Whole sentences should never be lifted out of the original to be included in it.

4) The precis should be roughly one-third of the original passage. Always prepare a rough draft first and count the words. If you find that it is too long, shorten it by removing what seems essential and by condensing phraseology. If it turns out to be too short, read the original to see what more can be added to the precis.

5) Examples, illustrations, and comparisons should be left out of the precis. Figures of speech should be removed and the ideas expressed in clear, direct language.

6) Your own comments on the ideas of the precis are absolutely forbidden. Do not express any opinion, favorable or unfavorable, about the ideas in the original passage.

7) Be very careful about the language you write. Mistakes of Grammar and spelling are penalized as much in the precis as in other forms of composition.

8) See that your precis is a readable piece of English and that its ideas can be understood even by a person who has not gone through the original. This is very important.

9) Your precis should be connected whole. As such it should not be divided into paragraphs. ( THIS RULE DOES NOT APPLY TO VERY LONG ORIGINAL PIECES OF WRITING SUCH AS THOSE SET IN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS).

10) Don’t use the direct form of speech in precis. If the author has written in the first person pronoun using “I” and “my”, you should write in thethird person pronoun: “he” and “his”.

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English, Guidelines

10 Important Climate Change Facts

Articles /

1) Temperatures are breaking records around the world:

The 21st century has seen the most temperature records broken in recorded history. 2016 was the hottest year on record since 1880, according to NASA, with average temperatures measuring 1.78 degrees Fahrenheit (0.99 degrees Celsius) warmer than the mid-20th century mean Since the 1950s, every continent has warmed substantially. NASA’s latest visualizations, above, make that reality stark.

2) There is no scientific debate about the reality of climate change:

Multiple studies show that a massive 97 per cent of researchers believe global warming is happening But climate change is considered only the third most serious issue facing the world by the world’s population, behind international terrorism and poverty, hunger and the lack of drinking water

3) Arctic sea ice and glaciers are melting:

Arctic sea ice coverage has shrunk every decade since 1979 by 3.5 to 4.1 per cent. Glaciers have also been in retreat, including in major mountain ranges like the Alps, Himalayas and Rockies. In 2017, Arctic sea ice reached a record low for the third straight running

4) Sea levels are rising at their fastest rate in 2,000 years:

Levels are currently rising at their fastest rate for more than 2,000 years and the current rate of change is 3.4mm a year. In July, a massive crack in the Larson C ice shelf finally gave way sending a 5,800 square km section of ice into the ocean. The newly formed iceberg is nearly four times the size of London.

5) Climate change will lead to a refugee crisis:

An average of 21.5 million people have been forcibly displaced since 2008 due to climate changed-related weather hazards, according to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.

6) Two-thirds of the Great Barrier Reef has been damaged as a result of climate change:

In April 2017, it was revealed that two-thirds of Australia’s Great Barrier Reef has been severely damaged by coral bleaching. As a result, the coral loses its vibrant appearance, turns white and becomes weaker. Scientists say it will be hard for the damaged coral to recover.

7) The ocean is 26 percent more acidic than before the Industrial Revolution:

The pH of ocean surface water has decreased by 0.1, which makes them 26 percent more acidic now than at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution. The waters are more acidic now that at any other point in the last 300,000 years.

8) Global flooding could triple by 2030:

The number of people exposed to flooding each year is at risk of tripling from 21 million to 54 million by 2030, This would result in the economic costs of flooding increasing from £65 billion to around £340 billion.

9) More greenhouse gases are in our atmosphere than any time in human history:

The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere reached the milestone of 400 parts per million for the first time in 2015 and surged again to new records in 2016

10) Earth could warm by six degrees this century:

The Earth’s temperature will continue to rise so long as we continue to produce greenhouse gases. The estimates for how much temperature will increase by 2100 range from two degrees Celsius to as much as six degrees Celsius.

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Articles

General Knowledge, World’s Longest, Largest and Smallest

General Knowledge, History, World /

● Largest Airport : King Abdul Khalid International Airport (Saudi Arabia)
● Highest Airport : Lhasa Airport, Tibet
● Tallest Animal : Giraffe
● Largest Animal : Blue Bottom whale
● Largest Bay : Hudson Bay, Canada.
● Largest Bird : Ostrich
● Smallest Bird : Humming bird
● Longest Bridge : Huey P. Long Bridge (USA)
● Tallest Building : Dubai Burj (Dubai)
● Longest Canal : Baltic sea White Canal
● Largest Cathedral : Cathedral Church of New York
● Largest Cemetry : Ohlsdorf Cemetry (Hamburg, Germany)
● Largest Church : Balisca of St. Peter in the Vatican City, Rome.
● Largest Continent : Asia
● Smallest Continent : Australia
● Largest Country (Area) : Russia
● Smallest Country (Area) : Vatican City
● Biggest Cinema House : Roxy, New York
● Highest City : Wenchuan, China
● Most Populous City : Tokyo
● Longest Day : June 21
● Shortest Day : December 22
● Largest Delta : Sunderban (India)
● Largest Desert : Sahara, North Africa

● Biggest Dome : Gol Gumbaz (Bijapur), India
● Largest Dams : Grand Coulee Dam, USA
● Tallest Fountain : Fountain Hills, Arizona
● Largest Gulf : Gulf of Mexico
● Largest Hotel : Excalibur Hotel (Las Vegas, Nevada, USA)
● Largest Island : Greenland
● Largest Lake : Caspian Sea.
● Deepest Lake : Baikal (Siberia)
● Highest Lake : Titicaca (Bolivia)
● Largest Library : United States Library of Congress, Washington
● Largest Mosque : Jama Masjid, Delhi (India)
● Highest Mountain Peak : Mount Everest (Nepal)
● Highest Mountain Range : Himalayas, Asia.
● Largest Mountain Range : Andes (South America)
● Biggest Museum : American Museum of Natural History (New York).
● Largest Minaret : Sultan Hassan Mosque (Egypt)
● Tallest Minaret : Qutub Minar, Delhi (India)
● Biggest Oceans : Pacific Ocean
● Deepest Oceans : Pacific Ocean
● Biggest Palace : Vatican (Rome)
● Largest Palace : Imperial Palace (China)
● Largest Park : National Park of North-Eastern (Greenland)
● Largest Peninsula : Arabia
● Highest Plateau : Pamir (Tibet)
● Longest Platform : Kharagpur, W. Bengal (India)
● Largest Platform : Grand Central Terminal, (Rly. Station), New York (USA)
● Biggest Planet : Jupiter
● Smallest Planet : Mercury
● Brightest Planet : Venus
● Coldest Planet : Neptune
● Nearest Planet (to the Sun) : Mercury
● Farthest Planet (from the Sun) : Neptune
● Longest River : Nile, Africa
● Longest River Dam : Hirakud Dam, India
● Largest Sea : South China Sea
● Largest Stadium : Starhove Stadium, Prague (Czech Republic)
● Brightest Star : Sirius A
● Tallest Statue : Motherland (Russia)
● Largest Sea-bird : Albatross
● Biggest Telescope : Mt. Palomar (USA)
● Longest Train : Flying Scotsman
● Largest Temple : Angkorwat in Combodia.
● Oldest Theatre : Teatro Olimpico (Itlay)
● Tallest Tower : C. N. Tower, Toronto (Canada)
● Longest Wall : Great Wall of China
● Highest Waterfall : Angel (Venezuela)
● Widest Waterfall : Khone Falls (Laos)
● Lowest Water Level : Dead Sea
● Longest Epic : Mahabharata
● Hottest Place : Azizia (Libya)
● Rainiest Place : Mosinram, near Cherrapunji (India)
● Highest Road : Leh-Nobra, Ladakh division India.
● Highest Village : Andean (Chile)
● Highest Volcano : Ojos del Salado, (Argentina) Chile
● Largest Volcano : Manuna Lea (Hawai)
● Lightest Gas : Hydrogen
● Fastest Animal : Cheetah
● Biggest Flower : Rafflesia (Java)
● Longest Corridor : Rameshwaram Temple (India)
● Largest Democracy : India
● Highest Cable Car Project : Gulmarg (Jammu-Kashmir)
● Biggest Airbus : Double Decker A-380
● Highest Rail Track : Kwinghai- Tibbet Railway (China)

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General Knowledge, History, World

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A /

The universe, Galaxy, Light Year, Solar System, Sun, Earth, Astronomical System of Units

1) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
In terms of mass, volume, and surface area, Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System by a wide margin.
Size and Mass:
Jupiter’s mass, volume, surface area and mean circumference are 1.8981 x 1027 kg, 1.43128 x 1015 km3, 6.1419 x 1010 km2, and 4.39264 x 105 km respectively. To put that in perspective, Jupiter diameter is roughly 11 times that of Earth, and 2.5 the mass of all the other planets in the Solar System combined.

2) The universe is ———-. (CSS 1996)

(a) Stationary
(b) Expanding
(c) Contracting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In June 2016, NASA and ESA scientists reported that the universe was found to be expanding 5% to 9% faster than thought earlier, based on studies using the Hubble Space Telescope

3) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) . 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) . 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Moon has no atmosphere. None. That’s why astronauts have to wear their spacesuits when they get outside of their spacecraft on the surface of the Moon.
Atmosphere of the Moon might be electro statically levitated moon dust. These tiny particles are constantly leaping up and down off the surface of the Moon.

4) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?

(a) Edwin Hubble
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar
(d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: (a)
The Hubble Space Telescope was named after astronomer Edwin Powell Hubble (1889–1953), who made some of the most important discoveries in modern astronomy. Dr. Hubble determined that the farther a galaxy is from Earth, the faster it appears to move away. This notion of an “expanding” universe formed the basis of the Big Bang theory, which states that the universe began with an intense burst of energy at a single moment in time — and has been expanding ever since.

5) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?

(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer: (a)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn.

6) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer: (c)
Venus is the only planet that rotates clockwise. Venus (radius 3,760.4 miles) is similar to Earth (radius 3,963.19 miles) in size and structure but spins very slowly; a day on Venus is 243 Earth days long.

7) Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their sizes?

(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Jupiter (69,911 km / 43,441 miles) – 1,120% the size of Earth
Saturn (58,232 km / 36,184 miles) – 945% the size of Earth
Uranus (25,362 km / 15,759 miles) –400% the size of Earth
Neptune (24,622 km / 15,299 miles) – 388% the size of Earth
Earth (6,371 km / 3,959 miles)

8) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is

(a) 50 Million years
(b) 100 Million years
(c) 250 Million years
(d) 365 Million years
Answer: (c)
the Sun is dragging us around the galaxy at around 800,000km/h, taking around 250 million years to complete a single orbit.
That means our Solar System has made around 18 complete circuits since it was formed around 4.5 billion years ago.

9): The planet having the largest diameter is

(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer: (b)
Jupiter is composed primarily of gaseous and liquid matter. It is the largest of the four giant planets in the Solar System and hence its largest planet. It has a diameter of 142,984 km (88,846 mi) at its equator

10) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun is (CSS 2010)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 98 days
(d) 60 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A year on Mercury is just 88 days long. One solar day (the time from noon to noon on the planet’s surface) on Mercury lasts the equivalent of 176 Earth days while the sidereal day (the time for 1 rotation in relation to a fixed point) lasts 59 Earth days. Mercury is nearly tidally locked to the Sun and over time this has slowed the rotation of the planet to almost match its orbit around the Sun. Mercury also has the highest orbital eccentricity of all the planets with its distance from the Sun ranging from 46 to 70 million km.

11) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. Jupiter has a mean radius of 43,440.7 miles (69,911 kilometers), about a tenth that of the sun. However, its rapid rotation — it spins once every 9.8 hours

12) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Apollo 17 mission deployed an instrument called the Lunar Atmospheric Composition Experiment (LACE) on the moon’s surface. It detected small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.

13) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS 2009)

(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

14) The sun produces most of its energy by (CSS 2012)

(a) Nuclear fusion which involves converting “H” to “He”
(b) Nuclear fission involving the burning of uranium & plutonium
(c) Nuclear fission involving the combining of uranium and palladium
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Sun, like all stars, is able to create energy because it is essentially a massive fusion reaction.
The core of the Sun is the region that extends from the center to about 20–25% of the solar radius. It is here, in the core, where energy is produced by hydrogen atoms (H) being converted into molecules of helium (He) This is possible thanks to the extreme pressure and temperature that exists within the core, which are estimated to be the equivalent of 250 billion atmospheres (25.33 trillion KPa) and 15.7 million kelvin, respectively.

15) Although the mass of a man on moon remains same as on the earth he will (CSS 2012)

(a) Be much happier there
(b) Weigh one sixth as much
(c) Weigh twice as much
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The Moon’s gravity is one sixth of the Earth’s gravity. A 120 kg astronaut weighs 1200 N on Earth. On the Moon they would weigh only 200 N. The astronaut’s mass is 120kg wherever they are.

16) The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon is: (CSS 2011)

(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

17): The earth rotates 011 its axis from_

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (d)
The Earth rotates from the west towards east. As viewed from North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.

18): Name two planets which revolve around their axis from east to west

(a) Earth and Venus
(b) Mars and Earth
(c) Venus and Uranus
(d) Mars and Uranus
Answer: (c)
Planets have no light of their own and all of them expect Venus and Uranus, rotate upon their axis from west to east.

19) Our sun is classified as (CSS 2012)

(a) A Blue giant
(b) A Yellow dwarf
(c) Supernova
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star, or G dwarf star, or more imprecisely, a yellow dwarf. Actually, the sun — like other G-type stars — is white, but appears yellow through Earth’s atmosphere. Stars generally get bigger as they grow older

20): Name the planet which revolve approximately 90 degree with its orbital plane_.

(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
Unlike any other planet, Uranus rotates on its side. That is, the rotation axis is tilted approximately 90 degrees relative to the planet’s orbital plane.

21): The hottest planet of our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Earth
Answer: (b)
Venus’s thick atmosphere made up mainly of CO2 makes it the hottest planet in the solar system. Mercury is colder because it’s atmosphere is thin.

22): Which of the following constellation contains Pole Star?

(a) Orion
(b) Ursa Major
(c) Ursa Minor
(d) Scorpio
Answer: (b)

23): All the stars appear to move from

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (c)
Every day, the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west. Actually, these celestial objects aren’t moving that fast, but Earth is. It spins on its axis from west to east approximately every 24 hours.
Because we are standing on Earth’s surface, we move along with it. To us, it appears as if everything in the sky is moving from east to west.

24): The body burning like a star and coming towards the earth

(a) Comet
(b) Meteor
(c) Ceres
(d) Satellites
Answer: (b)
Fleeting trails of light are called meteors or shooting stars and they are created by small particles, some no bigger than a grain of rice, as they are completely burned up high in the atmosphere: about 100 km (or 60 miles) above the Earth. They are over literally in the blink of an eye. Space debris is collectively termed meteoroids, those larger fragments that reach the ground are called meteorites. Very big meteoroids are also known as asteroids. If one collides with Earth it would cause a major catastrophe.

25) Which of the following is not true?

(a) Planets rotate on their own axis.
(b) Planets do not emit light.
(c) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky
(d) Most of the planets have rings around them.
Answer: (d)

26) Which is the brightest planet?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth. Venus can often be seen within a few hours after sunset or before sunrise as the brightest object in the sky (other than the moon)

27) The stars in space are ___.

(a) Uniformly spread out.
(b) Distributed completely at random
(c) Chiefly in the Milky Way
(d) Mostly contained within widely separated galaxies
Answer: (d)

28) “Black holes” refer to: (CSS 2009)

(a) Hole occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing objects of high density
(d) Collapsing of low density
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)

29) The Milky Way is _____.

( a) a gas cloud in the solar system
(b) a gas cloud in the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(c) the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(d) a nearby galaxy
Answer: (c)

30) Relative to the center of our galaxy, ____.

( a) its starts are stationary
(b) its stars move entirely at random
(c) its stars revolve
(d) Population I starts are stationary and Population II star revolve
Answer: (c)

31) Evidence of various kinds suggests that at the center of our galaxy is a ___.

( a) Quasar
(b) Pulsar
(c) Neutron star
(d) Black hole
Answer: (d)
A supermassive black hole (SMBH) is the largest type of black hole, in the order of hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses (M☉), and is found in the centre of almost all currently known massive galaxies. In the case of the Milky Way, the SMBH corresponds with the location of Sagittarius A*

32) A radio telescope is basically a (an) __.

(a) device for magnifying radio waves
(b) Telescope remotely controlled by radio
(c) Directional antenna connected to a sensitive radio receiver
(d) Optical telescope that uses electronic techniques to produce an image
Answer: (c)
Radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system that is used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. Because radio wavelengths are much longer than those of visible light, radio telescopes must be very large in order to attain the resolution of optical telescopes.
The first radio telescope, built in 1937 by Grote Reber of Wheaton

33) Sun is a: (CSS 2011)

(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Satellite
(d) Aurora
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
The Sun (or Sol), is the star at the centre of our solar system
The Sun is by far the largest object in the solar system. It contains more than 99.8% of the total mass of the Solar System (Jupiter contains most of the rest).

34) The age of the solar system is (CSS 2011)

(a) 4.5 billion years
(b) 5.5 billion years
(c) 6.5 billion years
(d) 7.5 billion years
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
By studying several things, mostly meteorites, and using radioactive dating techniques, specifically looking at daughter isotopes, scientists have determined that the Solar System is 4.6 billion years old. Well, give or take a few million years. That age can be extended to most of the objects and material in the Solar System.

35) An eclipse of the sun occurs when (CSS 2011)

(a) The moon is between the sun and the earth
(b) The sun is between the earth and the moon
(c) The earth is between the sun and the moon
(d) The earth casts its shadow on the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

36) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS 2009)

(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolaus Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
Considered today to be the father of modern astronomy, Nicolaus Copernicus was born on February 19, 1473 in Torun, Poland.

37) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is: (CSS 2009)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 2 years
(d) 98 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days (87.969 to be exact), which means a single year is 88 Earth days – or the equivalent of about 0.241 Earth years. But here’s the thing. Because of Mercury’s slow rotation (once every 58.646 days) and its rapid orbital speed (47.362 km/s), one day on Mercury actually works out to 175.96 Earth days.

38) Primary cosmic rays are composed largely of very fast ___.

( a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (a)
Of primary cosmic rays, which originate outside of Earth’s atmosphere, about 99% are the nuclei (stripped of their electron shells) of well-known atoms, and about 1% are solitary electrons (similar to beta particles). Of the nuclei, about 90% are simple protons, i. e. hydrogen nuclei; 9% are alpha particles, identical to helium nuclei, and 1% are the nuclei of heavier elements, called HZE ions

39) Cosmic rays ____.

(a) Circulate freely through space
(b) are trapped in our galaxy by electric fields
(c) are trapped in our galaxy by magnetic fields
(d) are trapped in our galaxy by gravitational fields
Answer: (c)

40) The red shift in the spectral lines of light reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ______.

( a) are moving closer to one another
(b) are moving farther apart from one another
(c) are in rapid rotation
(d) Consist predominantly of red giant stars
Answer: (b)

41) According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, the universe _____.

( a) Must be expanding
(b) Must be contracting
(c) Must be either expanding or contracting
(d) May be neither expanding nor contracting
Answer: (c)

42) Supernova explosions have no connection with _______.

( a) The formation of heavy elements
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) Pulsars
(d) Quasars
Answer: (d)

43) Current ideas suggest that what is responsible for the observed properties of a quasar is a massive ____.

(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Spiral galaxy
(d) Star cluster
Answer: (b)

44) The age of the universe is probably in the neighborhood of ______.

( a) 15 million years
(b) 4 ½ billion years
(c) 15 billion years
(d) 30 billion years
Answer: (c)

45) The term big bang refers to ___.

( a) the origin of the universe
(b) the ultimate fate of the universe
(c) a supernova explosion
(d) the formation of a quasar
Answer: (a)

46) The elements heavier than hydrogen and helium of which the planets are composed probably came from the __.
( a) Sun
(b) Debris of supernova explosions that occurred before the solar system came into being
(c) Big bang
(d) Big crunch
Answer: (b)

47) Today the universe apparently contains ____.

( a) Only matter
(b) Only antimatter
(c) Equal amounts of matter and antimatter
(d) Slightly more matter than antimatter
Answer: (a)

48) Radiation from the early history of the universe was Doppler-shifted by the expansion of the universe until today it is in the form of _______.

( a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Infrared waves
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (d)

49) Present evidence suggests that most of the mass of the universe is in the form of ______.

( a) Dark matter
(b) Luminous matter
(c) Cosmic rays
(d) Black holes
Answer: (a)

50) It is likely that the planets, satellites, and other members of the solar system were formed ________.

(a) Together with the sun
(b) Later than the sun from material it ejected
(c) Later than the sun from material it captured from space
(d) Elsewhere and were captured by the sun
Answer: (a)

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

History of the USA Converted from Henry William Elson’s History of the United States of America The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904

History, US History /

History of the USA

Converted from Henry William Elson’s
History of the United States of America
The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904

The following ten chapters from the original book by Henry William Elson were transcribed by Kathy Leigh. Thanks to her efforts they are offered here in e-text form for your enjoyment. Note that the table of contents below does not include original pagination or chapters that are not available online. Scholars should reference the text at any major library.

E-Text Table of Contents

History of the USA Converted from Henry William Elson’s History of the United States of America The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904 Read More »

History, US History

100 MCQs About World History

English, History, MCQs / Q&A, World /

100 MCQs About World History

1. What is the oldest daily newspaper in England? – The Times

2. Which two American states joined the union in 1959? – Alaska and Hawaii

3. Which American President ordered the dropping of the first atomic bomb? – Harry S Truman

4. In which century did King George IV rule Great Britain? – 18th

5. After which famous person in history was the teddy bear named? – Theodore Roosevelt

6. What was the name given to the trials of 24 Nazi leaders for war crimes in 1945? – The Nuremberg Trials

7. In what century was the Taj Mahal built? – 17th

8. Which gangster said ‘I’ve been accused of every death except the casualty list of the World War’? – Al Capone

9. In what year was Prince William born? – 1982

10. The word ‘book’ originates from the middle English word ‘bok’ meaning which type of
tree? – Beech

11. Richard Byrd is credited with having been the first person to fly over what particular spot
in the world? – The North Pole

12. Why don’t the restaurants ‘Palm Court’, ‘Cafe Parisien’ and ‘Verandah’ exist anymore? – They were on the Titanic

13. What city was the capital of Poland between 1320 and 1611? – Krakow

14. Who was the first President of America? – George Washington

15. Which American President served only 31 days? – William Harrison

16. When the first World War broke out which three countries made up the Triple Entente? –
France, England and Russia

17. What is Adam’s ale or Adam’s wine? – Water

18. Who were the mother and father of Elizabeth I? – Anne Boleyn and Henry VIII

19. Which British Prime Minister resigned because of the Suez crisis? – Anthoney Eden

20. For what was Rosa Parks arrested in 1955, leading to the biggest US Civil Rights
movement? – Refusing to give up her seat on a bus for a white man

21. John Major became a member of Parliament in 1979 for which town, north of London? –
Huntingdon

22. Which American President was shot in 1901 and died 8 days later? – McKinley

23. The Battle of Bosworth in 1485 was the last battle of which series of wars? – The Wars Of The Roses

24. The explorer Sir Edmund Hillary was from which country? – New Zealand

25. The popular British pub name ‘The Royal Oak’ is named after which King? – Charles II (he hid in an oak tree to escape enemies)

26. Collectively, by what name are Carole Richardson, Patrick Armstrong, Paul Hill and Gerard Conlon better known? – The Guildford Four

27. In which century was the world’s first public railway opened? – 19th

28. The invention of what in 1867, made Alfred Nobel famous? – Dynamite

29. What was King William II killed by? An arrow, the plague or old age? – An Arrow

30. In Greek mythology, who was the goddess of marriage, women and childbirth? – Hera

31. In what year did Margaret Thatcher become Prime Minister? – 1979

32. In what year was London due to host the Olympic Games, but couldn’t because of the Second World War? – 1944

33. On March 3rd, 1991, who was severly beaten by Los Angeles police officers causing public outcry? – Rodney King

34. Which king was the target of the Gunpowder plot of 1605? – James I

35. What alloy was the most important metal for tools and weapons between the years 4000
and 2000 B.C.? – Bronze

36. In which year did Tony Blair first become British Prime Minister? – 1997

37. Who was the first US President to meet with a reigning British monarch? – Woodrow Wilson

38. In which month in 1914, did Britain declare war on Germany? – August

39. Thomas Chippendale was best known for making and designing what in the 18th century? – Furniture

40. What historic event does the nursery rhyme ‘Ring-a-ring of roses’ commemorate? – The Great Plague

41. In which year did colour TV transmissions begin in Britain? – 1969

42. As at the year 2001, who has been the tallest American President? – Abraham Lincoln

43. Which famous London department store opened on 15th March, 1909? – Selfridges

44. Which of the following occurred most recently? The Iron Age or The Bronze Age? – Iron Age

45. Who is the only American President to have served non-consecutive terms in office? – Grover Cleveland

46. In which country did the cloning of Dolly the sheep take place? – Scotland

47. Who ordered the beheading of Mary Queen Of Scots? – Queen Elizabeth I

48. Which English queen was married to Lord Guildford Dudley? – Lady Jane Grey

49. Which geographical location was the first word spoken on the moon? – Houston

50. What was Hitler’s title as the leader of Nazi Germany? – Fuhrer

51. What was the surname of Zachary, the President of the USA between 1849 and 1850? –Taylor

52. How many of Henry VIII’s wives had been previously married? – 2

53. Who did Queen Elizabeth I succeed to the throne? – Mary I

54. In which war was the Victoria Cross first awarded? – The Crimean War

55. In which century did the diamond engagement ring first become popular? – 15th

56. Which country declared war on both Germany and the Allies in World War II? – Italy

57. Which two brothers are associated with the invention of the aeroplane? – Orville and Wilbur Wright

58. By what title was Oliver Cromwell known? – Lord Protector

59. In 1978, what was Sweden’s most profitable export, ahead of Volvo? – Abba

60. What was the name of the bomb which was dropped on Nagasaki during World War II? – Fat Man

61. How did Robert The Bruce die? – Of the disease leprosy

62. Which famous museum opened in London, in April 1928? – Madam Tussauds

63. In Greek mythology, what was unusual about Medusa’s hair? – It was made of snakes

64. In America, what became the 49th state to enter the union in 1959? – Alaska

65. Which district of London was named after a battle fought in 1815? – Waterloo

66. In what year did the first successful Mars landings take place? – 1976

67. For how many years did the Jurassic period last? – 180 million

68. In which century was Mary, Queen Of Scots executed? – 16th

69. Who was the first American President to visit China? – Richard Nixon

70. Parker and Barrow were the surnames of which famous couple? – Bonnie and Clyde

71. What type of animal was the first to be sent into space? – A dog

72. For what reason did American Sally Ride become famous in 1983? – First American female in space

73. In which year did Richard Nixon begin the secret bombing of Cambodia? – 1969

74. Which famous person in history invented the greeting, ‘Hello’ first used for answering the telephone? – Thomas Edison

75. Who was the famous son of the Greek princess Olympias? – Alexander The Great

76. What were the names of Adam and Eve’s three sons? – Cain, Abel and Seth

77. Which war was called the ‘War to end all wars’? – World War I

78. In what year did Laika the dog become the first space traveller? – 1957

79. Which country in Europe has the oldest Parliament? – Iceland

80. Who was the third President of America and chief author of the Declaration Of Independence? – Thomas Jefferson

81. In what year was the battle of Agincourt? – 1415

82. By what name was the Scottish outlaw Robert McGregor better known? – Rob Roy

83. In 1969, what became the first song to be sung in outer space? – Happy Birthday

84. By what name was Sir Arthur Wellesley better known? – Duke of Wellington

85. What was the name of the suffragette who threw herself under the King’s horse in the
1913 Derby? – Emily Davison

86. What was the profession of Alexander Graham Bell, inventor of the telephone? – Teacher (of deaf and dumb children)

87. Which country suffered over 6 million deaths in World War II, equivalent to over 17% of
it’s population? – Poland

88. Which English King was killed by an arrow at the battle of Hastings? – King Harold

89. Who was murdered by Robert Ford? – Jesse James

90. In what year were protesting students murdered in Tiananman Square? – 1989

91. Which US President was forced to resign because of the Watergate scandal? – Richard Nixon

92. Which monarch’s last words were ‘All my possessions for a moment of time’? – Elizabeth  I

93. What happened in 1847 that is sometimes referred to as ‘Black Forty Seven’? – The potato famine in Ireland

94. In which country did Venetian blinds originate? Italy, India or Japan? – Japan

95. In which country was Mother Theresa born? – Yugoslavia

96. Who was the first American President to die while in office? – William Harrison

97. What was the maiden name of the bride at the first wedding watched by over 750 million
people? – Diana Spencer

98. Who was Queen Elizabeth II’s father? – George VI

99. Which famous raid did Guy Gibson lead in 1943? – The Dambusters

100. Who, in 1901, was the first man to send a Radio Telegraph signal across the Atlantic
Ocean? – Guglielmo Marconi


 

 

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