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1972

Flannery O’Connor Quiz

Flannery O’Connor was an American writer. She wrote two novels and 32 short stories. Her Complete Stories won the 1972 U.S. National Book Award for Fiction.

1. What was Flannery O’Connor’s first name?
a) Hilda
b) Mary
c) Stephanie
d) Jane

2. When was Flannery O’Connor born?
a) 25 March 1925
b) 18 May 1922
c) 31 July 1919
d) 30 December 1915

3. Where was Flannery O’Connor born?
a) Boston
b) Atlanta
c) Savannah
d) New Orleans

4. Which college did Flannery O’Connor attend?
a) Bethany College
b) St. John’s College
c) St. Agnes’ College
d) Georgia State College for Women

5. Which university did Flannery O’Connor attend?
a) Harvard
b) Yale
c) Princeton
d) Iowa

6. Which was Flannery O’Connor’s first novel?
a) Wise Blood
b) The Violent Bear It Away
c) Mystery and Manners
d) The Habit of Being

 

7. When did Flannery O’Connor publish A Good Man Is Hard to Find, and Other Stories?
a) 1979
b) 1955
c) 1969
d) 1971

8. Which disease afflicted Flannery O’Connor?
a) Parkinson’s disease
b) Alzheimer’s disease
c) Lupus erythematosus
d) Agranulocytic angina

9. When did Flannery O’Connor die?
a) 22 January 1969
b) 12 June 1978
c) 3 August 1964
d) 5 November 1984

10. Where did Flannery O’Connor die?
a) Reno
b) Milledgeville
c) Albuquerque
d) Portland

Flannery O’Connor Quiz Questions with Answers

 

1. What was Flannery O’Connor’s first name?
b) Mary

2. When was Flannery O’Connor born?
a) 25 March 1925

3. Where was Flannery O’Connor born?
c) Savannah

4. Which college did Flannery O’Connor attend?
d) Georgia State College for Women

5. Which university did Flannery O’Connor attend?
d) Iowa

6. Which was Flannery O’Connor’s first novel?
a) Wise Blood

7. When did Flannery O’Connor publish A Good Man Is Hard to Find, and Other Stories?
b) 1955

8. Which disease afflicted Flannery O’Connor?
c) Lupus erythematosus

9. When did Flannery O’Connor die?
c) 3 August 1964

10. Where did Flannery O’Connor die?
b) Milledgeville

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Environmental Science MCQs | Sustainable Development Issues

1) The expansion on PQLI is
(a) Physical Quality of Life index
(b) Physical Quantity of Life Index
(c) Product Quality Lifecycle Implementation
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

2) Birth rate is called
(a) Mortality
(b) Vital index
(c) Natality
(d) Viability
Answer: (c)

3) Death rate of the population
(a) Mortality
(b) Viability
(c) Natality
(d) Vitality
Answer: (a)

4) The Anthrax disease is caused by
(a) Virus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa
(d) Helminthes
Answer: (b)

5) Superbugs are
(a) Synthetic bug
(b) Bacteria
(c) Radio nucleotide
(d) Industries
Answer: (b)

6) Salmonellosis is a disease related to consumption of
(a) Chicken
(b) Eggs
(c) Mutton
(d) Fish
Answer: (d)

7) Causative organisms of Malaria
(a) Bacteria
(b) Fungus
(c) Plasmodium
(d) Virus
Answer: (c)

8) What is ‘Black Lung?”
(a) Occupational Hazard to the miners
(b) Occupational Hazard to navigators
(c) Occupational Hazard to pesticide applicators.
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)

9) What is Carcinogen?
(a) Drugs for curing infectious disease
(b) Drugs used for curing cancer
(c) Cancer causing agent
(d) Food colorants
Answer: (c)

10) Infection of HIV is usually detected by which test
(a) Elisa test
(b) Hybridization
(c) Gram staining
(d) None
Answer: (a)

11) The destruction of habitat of plants and animals is called
(a) Endemism
(b) Endangered species
(c) Habitat loss
(d) Flood
Answer: (c)

12) Zoos are examples for
(a) In-situ conservation
(b) in-vivo conservation
(c) ex-situ conservation
(d) ex vivo conservation
Answer: (c)

13) The first national park of Pakistan
(a) Lulusar-Dudipatsar National Park
(b) Shandure-Phander National Park
(c) Lal Suhanra National Park
(d) Pir Lasura National Park
Answer: (c)

14) Earth summit of Rio de Janeiro (1992) resulted in
(a) Compilation of Red list
(b) Establishment of biosphere reserves
(c) Conservation of biodiversity
(d) IUCN
Answer: (c)

15) Some species of plants and animals are extremely rare and may occur only at a few locations are called
(a) Endemic
(b) Endangered
(c) Vulnerable
(d) Threatened
Answer: (b)

16) The drug morphine is extracted from …………… plant
(a) Cocoa
(b) Belladonna
(c) Opium Poppy
(d) Tannin
Answer: (c)

17) …………….. species is known as Azadirachta Indica
(a) Neem
(b) Mango
(c) Jackfruit
(d) Banana
Answer: (a)

18) ……………….. tree is known as ‘flame of the forest’?
(a) Ziziphus
(b) Butea monosperma
(c) Jackfruit
(d) Pongamia
Answer: (b)

19) Which tree is known as Coral tree?
(a) Quercus
(b) Dipterocarps
(c) Erythrina
(d) Ziziphus
Answer: (c)

20) Which plants die after flowering?
(a) Lotus
(b) Bamboo
(c) Chrysanthemum
(d) Butea
Answer: (b)

21) Out of 4,100 mammal species in the world, Pakistan is home to
(a) 209
(b) 188
(c) 319
(d) 566
Answer: (b)

22) The four mammals known to have so far disappeared from Pakistan are the tiger (Panthera Tigris), swamp deer (Cervus duvaucelii), lion (Panthera Leo) and the.
(a) White Rhinoceros
(b) One-horned rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis)
(c) Elephant
(d) Hog deer
Answer: (b)

23) ……………….. is a marine tortoise which shows the unique phenomenon ‘Arribada’
(a) Olive Ridley
(b) Star Tortoise
(c) Travancore Tortoise
(d) b & c
Answer: (a)

24) Largest reptile in the world
(a) Dragon
(b) Anaconda
(c) Crocodile
(d) Python
Answer: (b)

25) In which year Broghil Valley (KPK) was declared as National Park?
(a) 1988
(b) 1996
(c) 2010
(d) 2011
Answer: (c)

26) The total population of Snow Leopard in Pakistan is estimated around
(a) 400
(b) 500
(c) 300
(d) 188
Answer: (c)

27) In Pakistan, mangroves forests covered 600,000 hectares but now that has been reduced to
(a) 185,000 hectares
(b) 75,000 hectares
(c) 85,000 hectares
(d) 115,000 hectares
Answer: (b)

28) In which year Kala Chitta was declared as National Park?
(a) 2008
(b) 2009
(c) 2010
(d) 2012
Answer: (b)

29) The Red Data book which lists endangered species is maintained by
(a) UNO
(b) WHO
(c) IUCN
(d) WWF
Answer: (c)

30) The largest national park in the world meeting the IUCN definition is the Northeast Greenland National Park, which was established in
(a) 1973
(b) 1974.
(c) 1976
(d) 1999
Answer: (b)

31) In which year Lal Suhanra was declared as National Park?
(a) 1972
(b) 1988
(c) 1995
(d) 2008
Answer: (a)

32) Flag ship species of Deosai National Park (Skardu) sanctuary
(a) Tiger
(b) Peacock
(c) Brown Bears
(d) Rhino
Answer: (c)

33) Herpetology is a branch of Science which deals with
(a) Aves
(b) Mammals
(c) Reptiles
(d) Fishes
Answer: (c)

34) “Silent Spring” is a well-known book written by
(a) John Miller
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Rachel Carson
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

35) First Biosphere reserve in Pakistan
(a) Lal Suhanra National Park
(b) Kirthar National Park
(c) Chitral Gol National Park
(d) Chiltan Hazarganji, National Park
Answer: (a)

36) Bears are usually hunted and killed for their
(a) Teeth
(b) Skin
(c) Gall bladder
(d) Nails
Answer: (b)

37) Coral reefs in Pakistan can be seen in
(a) Atcola Island
(b) Churna (near Karachi coast)
(c) Pasni and near Jevani
(d) All of the above
Answer: (d)

38) Which of the following is an extinct species?
(a) Tiger
(b) Lion
(c) Dodo
(d) Ostrich
Answer: (c)

39) Black Buck is a
(a) Goat
(b) Deer
(c) Butterfly
(d) Bird
Answer: (b)

40) Gharial is a
(a) Crocodile
(b) Cobra
(c) Tortoise
(d) Frog
Answer: (a)

41) ——— is one of the most endangered species of Pakistani birds
(a) Bee eater
(b) Chakoor
(c) Owl
(d) Houbara bustard
Answer: (d)

42) Pangolins feed on
(a) Ants
(b) Fruits
(c) Leaves
(d) Roots
Answer: (a)

43) Many wild plant and animals are on the verge of extinction due to
(a) Habitat destruction
(b) Climatic changes
(c) Non availability of food
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

44) The first global environmental protection treaty “The Montreal Protocol” was signed on Sept. 26.
(a) 1985
(b) 1990
(c) 1981
(d) 1987
Answer: (d)

45) Animals and plants are best protected in
(a) Zoos
(b) Botanical Gardens
(c) National Parks
(d) Sanctuaries
Answer: (c)

46) The Native Place of Redwood trees?
(a) Australia
(b) Amazon
(c) California
(d) Thailand
Answer: (c)

47) Which of the following pulls people to urban areas?
(a) Declining agricultural jobs
(b) Lack of land to grow food
(c) Better health care
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

48) Due to the urban population exploding in developing countries, they will need to build the equivalent of a city with more than 1 million people every __ for the next 25 years.
(a) Day
(b) Week
(c) Month
(d) Three months
(e) Year
Answer: (b)

49) Which of the following statements is false?
(a) The shift in poverty is moving rapidly from the city to the country.
(b) Developing countries are currently urbanizing faster than developed countries.
(c) Urbanization varies throughout the world but is increasing everywhere
(d) The general population growth also contributes to urban growth
(e) The shift in poverty is moving rapidly from the country to the city
Answer: (a)

50) Those who migrate and find jobs in cities can expect all of the following, except
(a) Long hours and low wages
(b) Dangerous machinery
(c) Health and retirement benefits
(d) Noise pollution
(e) High crime rate
Answer: (c)

Environmental Science MCQs | Sustainable Development Issues Read More »

MCQs / Q&A, Test, World

General Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III)

Click HERE for Q.No.1-50
Click HERE for Q.No.51-100

101) Which type of star is maintained by the pressure of an electron gas?
(a) Main Sequence Star
(b) White Dwarf
(c) Neutron Star
(d) Black Hole
Answer: (b)
White dwarfs are stars supported by pressure of degenerate electron gas. i.e. in their interiors thermal energy kT is much smaller then Fermi energy Ep. We shall derive the equations of structure of white dwarfs, sometimes called degenerate dwarfs, in the limiting case when their thermal pressure may be neglected, but the degenerate electron gas may be either non-relativistic. somewhat relativistic. or ultra-relativistic.

102) Which of the following first hypothesized that the Earth orbited the sun?
(a) Alexander the Great
(b) Copernicus
(c) Socrates
(d) Tycho Brahe
Answer: (b)
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance mathematician and astronomer who formulated a model of the universe that placed the Sun rather than the Earth at the center of the universe.

103) The LAST manned moon flight was made in what year?
(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1973 (d) 1974
Answer: (b)
The last manned landing Apollo 17 on the Moon to date, which took place on December 11, 1972, was made by Commander Eugene Cernan and lunar module pilot Harrison Schmitt who was also the first scientist on the Moon.

104) A planet is said to be at aphelion when it is:
(a) closest to the sun
(b) farthest from the sun
(c) at it’s highest point above the ecliptic
(d) at it’s lowest point below the ecliptic
Answer: (b)

105) The word Albedo refers to which of the following?
(a) The wobbling motion of a planet
(b) The amount of light a planet reflects
(c) The phase changes of a planet
(d) The brightness of a star
Answer: (b)
Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. The albedo effect when applied to the Earth is a measure of how much of the Sun’s energy is reflected back into space. Overall, the Earth’s albedo has a cooling effect. (The term ‘albedo’ is derived from the Latin for ‘whiteness’).

106) A pulsar is actually a:
(a) black hole
(b) white dwarf
(c) red giant
(d) neutron star
Answer: (d)

107) Astronomers use Cepheid’s principally as measures of what? Is it:
(a) size
(b) speed
(c) chemical composition
(d) distance
Answer: (d)

108) Where are most asteroids located? Is it between:
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Mars and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Mars and Jupiter
Answer: (d)

109) The precession of the Earth refers to the:
(a) change from night to day.
(b) Earth’s motion around the sun.
(c) change in orientation of the Earth’s axis.
(d) effect of the moon on the Earth’s orbit.
Answer: (c)
Precession is the change in orientation of the Earth’s rotational axis. The precession cycle takes about 19,000 – 23,000 years. Precession is caused by two factors: a wobble of the Earth’s axis and a turning around of the elliptical orbit of the Earth itself (Thomas, 2002). Obliquity affected the tilt of the Earth’s axis, precession affects the direction of the Earth’s axis. The change in the axis location changes the dates of perihelion (closest distance from sun) and aphelion (farthest distance from sun), and this increases the seasonal contrast in one hemisphere while decreasing it in the other hemisphere ( Kaufman, 2002). currently, the Earth is closest to the sun in the northern hemisphere winter, which makes the winters there less severe (Thomas, 2002). Another consequence of precession is a shift in the celestial poles. 5000 years ago the North Star was Thuban in the constellation Draco. Currently the North Star is Polaris in the constellation Ursa Minor.

110) The Magellanic cloud is a:
(a) nebula
(b) galaxy
(c) super nova remnant
(d) star cluster
Answer: (b)

111) The comet known as Halley’s Comet has an average period of:
(a) 56 years
(b) 66 years
(c) 76 years
(d) 86 years
Answer: (c)
Halley’s Comet orbits the Sun every 76.0 years and has an orbital eccentricity of 0.97. Comet Halley was visible in 1910 and again in 1986. Its next perihelion passage will be in early 2062.

112) Which one of the following planets has no moons?
(a) Mars
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)

113) The rocks that enter the earth’s atmosphere and blaze a trail all the way to the ground and do not burn up completely are known as:
(a) meteorites
(b) meteors
(c) asteroids
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
A meteorite is a solid piece of debris from an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that originates in outer space and survives its passage through the Earth’s atmosphere and impact with the Earth’s surface

114) 95% of the Martian atmosphere is composed of what substance?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon monoxide
Answer: (a)
The atmosphere of Mars is about 100 times thinner than Earth’s, and it is 95 percent carbon dioxide.

115) What is the motion called when a planet seems to be moving westward in the sky?
(a) Retrograde
(b) Parallax
(c) Opcentric
(d) Reverse parallax
Answer: (a)
Retrograde motion, in astronomy, describes the orbit of a celestial body that runs counter to the direction of the spin of that body which it orbits. Apparent retrograde motion, in astronomy, is the apparent motion of planets as observed from a particular vantage point.

116) In what year did Galileo first use an optical telescope to study the moon?
(a) 1492 (b) 1611
(c) 1212 (d) 1743
Answer: (b)

117) Geocentric means around:
(a) Jupiter (b) the Earth
(c) the Moon (d) the Sun
Answer: (b)

118) The Pythagoreans appear to have been the first to have taught that the Earth is:
(a) at the center of the Universe.
(b) spherical in shape.
(c) orbits around the sun.
(d) flat with sharp edges.
Answer: (b)

119) A device which would not work on the Moon is:
(a) thermometer
(b) siphon
(c) spectrometer
(d) spring balance
Answer: (b)
Siphons will not work in the International Space Station where there is air but no gravity, but neither will they work on the Moon where there is gravity but no air

120) Of the following colors, which is bent least in passing through aprism?
(a) orange (b) violet
(c) green (d) red
Answer: (d)

121) In a reflecting telescope where in the tube is the objective mirror placed?
(a) the top to the tube
(b) the middle of the tube
(c) the bottom of the tube
(d) the side of the tube
Answer: (c)

122) What does it mean when someone says that comets have eccentric orbits? Does it mean
(a) they have open orbits
(b) they have nearly circular orbits
(c) their orbits are unpredictable
(d) the sun is far from the foci of their orbits
Answer: (d)

123) What causes the gas tail of a comet to always point away from the sun?
(a) solar wind
(b) air pressure
(c) centrifugal force
(d) gravity
Answer: (a)

124) What are Saturn’s rings composed of?
(a) completely connected solid masses
(b) billions of tiny solid particles
(c) mixtures of gases
(d) highly reflective cosmic clouds
Answer: (b)

125) Of the following, which is the only planet which CANNOT be seen with the unaided eye?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
The ice giant Neptune was the first planet located through mathematical predictions rather than through regular observations of the sky. Nearly 4.5 billion kilometers (2.8 billion miles) from the Sun, Neptune orbits the Sun once every 165 years. It is invisible to the naked eye because of its extreme distance from Earth. In 2011 Neptune completed its first orbit since its discovery in 1846.

126) Accretion is:
(a) the gradual accumulation of matter in one location usually due to gravity.
(b) the process of moon formation for planets.
(c) the process of matter accumulation due to centripetal force.
(d) the disintegration of matter.
Answer: (b)

127) A blue shift means a Doppler shift of light from a(an)
(a) receding star.
(b) blue star.
(c) approaching star.
(d) fixed star.
Answer: (c)
In the Doppler effect for visible light, the frequency is shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum when the light source (such as a star) is approaching.

128) The first and largest asteroid discovered was:
(a) Pallas.
(b) Juno.
(c) Ceres.
(d) Trojan.
Answer: (c)

129) The Crab Nebula consists of the remnants of a supernova which was observed by:
(a) Brahe in 1572.
(b) Kepler and Galileo in 1604.
(c) the Chinese in 1054 A.D.
(d) several ancient civilizations in 236 B.C.
Answer: (c)
The Crab Nebula, the result of a supernova noted by Earth-bound chroniclers in 1054 A.D., is filled with mysterious filaments that are are not only tremendously complex, but appear to have less mass than expelled in the original supernova and a higher speed than expected from a free explosion. The Crab Nebula spans about 10 light-years. In the nebula’s very center lies a pulsar: a neutron star as massive as the Sun but with only the size of a small town. The Crab Pulsar rotates about 30 times each second.

130) The atmosphere of Venus contains mostly
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water
Answer: (b)
The atmosphere of Venus is composed of about 96% carbon dioxide, with most … various other corrosive compounds, and the atmosphere contains little water.

131) On the celestial sphere, the annual path of the Sun is called
(a) the eclipse path.
(b) ecliptic.
(c) diurnal.
(d) solstice.
Answer: (b)
The ecliptic is an imaginary line on the sky that marks the annual path of the sun. It is the projection of Earth’s orbit onto the celestial sphere.

132) The angular distance between a planet and the Sun, as viewed from the Earth, is called
(a) angle of inclination.
(b) elongation.
(c) latitude.
(d) opposition.
Answer: (b)
Elongation is the angular distance between the sun, and another object such a moon or a planet as seen from earth. There are several special names for these angular distances. The different names of these angles depend on the status, inferior or superior, of the planet. The planets closer to the sun than the earth are called inferior planets. The planets farther away from the sun than earth are called superior planets.
Elongation is measured from earth as the angle between the sun and the planet. Sometimes the apparent relative position of a planet in relation to the sun is called the aspect, or configuration, of a planet.

133) Which of the following has the highest density?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Earth has the highest density of any planet in the Solar System, at 5.514 g/cm3. This is considered the standard by which other planet’s densities are measured. In addition, the combination of Earth’s size, mass and density also results in a surface gravity of 9.8 m/s². This is also used as a the standard (one g) when measuring the surface gravity of other planets.

134) Which of the following planets is NOT a terrestrial planet?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer: (b)
The term terrestrial planet is derived from the Latin “Terra” (i.e. Earth). Terrestrial planets are therefore those that are “Earth-like”, meaning they are similar in structure and composition to planet Earth. All those planets found within the Inner Solar System – Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars – are examples of terrestrial planets. Each are composed primarily of silicate rock and metal, which is differentiated between a dense, metallic core and a silicate mantle.

135) Why do we see lunar eclipses much more often than solar eclipses?
(a) Lunar eclipses occur more often than solar eclipses.
(b) Lunar eclipses last longer than solar eclipses.
(c) The lunar eclipse is visible to much more of the Earth than a solar eclipse.
(d) The moon is closer to the Earth than the sun.
Answer: (c)
Lunar and solar eclipses occur with about equal frequency. Lunar eclipses are more widely visible because Earth casts a much larger shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse than the Moon casts on Earth during a solar eclipse. As a result, we are more likely to see a lunar eclipse than a solar eclipse.

136) A star like object with a very large red shift is a
(a) Neutron star.
(b) Nova.
(c) Quasar.
(d) Supernova.
Answer: (c)
Quasars: In the 1930’s, Edwin Hubble discovered that all galaxies have a positive redshift. In other words, all galaxies were receding from the Milky Way.

137) The apparent magnitude of an object in the sky describes its
(a) Size
(b) Magnification
(c) Brightness
(d) Distance
Answer: (c)

138) The Van Allen belts are:
(a) caused by the refraction of sunlight like rainbows.
(b) charged particles trapped in the Earth’s magnetic field.
(c) caused by the reflection of polar snow.
(d) caused by precession.
Answer: (b)
The Van Allen belts are a collection of charged particles, gathered in place by Earth’s magnetic field. They can wax and wane in response to incoming energy from the sun, sometimes swelling up enough to expose satellites in low-Earth orbit to damaging radiation.

139) A coordinate system based on the ecliptic system is especially useful for the studies of
(a) Planets
(b) Stars
(c) The Milky Way
(d) Galaxies
Answer: (a)

140) The mean distance of the earth from the sun in astronomical units is:
(a) 3.7 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 101
Answer: (c)
In astronomy, an astronomical unit is defined as the average distance from the Sun to the Earth, or about 150 million kilometers (93 million miles). You can abbreviate astronomical unit as AU.
Since the distances in astronomy are so vast, astronomers use this measurement to bring the size of numbers down.
For example, Earth is 1 au from the Sun, and Mars is 1.523 AU. That’s much easier than saying that Mars is 227,939,000 km away from the Sun.

141) What process produces a star’s energy?
(a) hydrogen and oxygen combustion
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) neutron beta decay
(d) nuclear fission
Answer: (b)
The enormous luminous energy of the stars comes from nuclear fusion processes in their centers. Depending upon the age and mass of a star, the energy may come from proton-proton fusion, helium fusion, or the carbon cycle.

142) What is the most distant object in the sky that the human eye can see without optical instruments?
(a) The Horsehead Nebula
(b) The Andromeda Galaxy
(c) The Sagittarius Constellation
(d) The Aurora Borealis
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy (M31) is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way and is one of a few galaxies that can be seen unaided from the Earth. In approximately 4.5 billion years the Andromeda Galaxy and the Milky Way are expected to collide and the result will be a giant elliptical galaxy. Andromeda is accompanied by 14 dwarf galaxies, including M32, M110, and possibly M33 (The Triangulum Galaxy).

143) Which civilization developed and implemented the first solar calendar?
(a) Babylonian
(b) Greek
(c) Egyptian
(d) Aztec
Answer: (c)
A solar calendar is a calendar whose dates indicate the position of the earth on its revolution around the sun and is based on the seasonal year of approximately 365 1/4 days, the time it takes the Earth to revolve once around the Sun. The Egyptians appear to have been the first to develop a solar calendar, using as a fixed point the annual sunrise reappearance of the Dog Star — Sirius, or Sothis — in the eastern sky, which coincided with the annual flooding of the Nile River. They constructed a calendar of 365 days, consisting of 12 months of 30 days each, with 5 days added at the year’s end. The Egyptians’ failure to account for the extra fraction of a day, however, caused their calendar to drift gradually into error.

144) What is the HOTTEST region of the sun?
(a) The core
(b) The photosphere
(c) The chromospheres
(d) The corona
Answer: (d)
The corona is the outermost layer of the Sun, starting at about 1300 miles (2100 km) above the solar surface (the photosphere) The temperature in the corona is 500,000 K (900,000 degrees F, 500,000 degrees C) or more, up to a few million K. The corona cannot be seen with the naked eye except during a total solar eclipse, or with the use of a coronagraph. The corona does not have an upper limit.
A study published in 2012 in Nature Communications by researchers at Northumbria University found a possible mechanism that causes some stars to have a corona that is almost 200 times hotter than their photosphere (the star’s surface).

145) The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because:
(a) the moon is not rotating about its axis.
(b) the moon’s motion was fixed at its creation by the laws of inertia.
(c) tidal forces keep the moon’s rotation and orbiting motion in sync with each other.
(d) the moon’s magnetic poles keep aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field.
Answer: (b)

146) The resolving power of a telescope depends on the:
(a) focal ratio
(b) diameter of the objective
(c) magnification
(d) focal length
Answer: (b)
The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of the telescope’s light-gathering apparatus, or objective. In a refracting telescope, the objective lens is the first lens the light passes through. In a reflecting telescope, the objective is the telescope’s primary mirror. In a Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope, the objective is also the primary mirror. As the diameter of the telescope’s objective increases, the resolving power increases.

147) On a clear, dark, moonless night, approximately how many stars can be seen with the naked eye?
(a) 300 (b) 1,000
(c) 3,000 (d) 10,000
Answer: (c)
On any clear dark moonless night a person can see about 3000 stars of our galaxy without the aid of a telescope

148) The study of the origin and evolution of the universe is known as:
(a) Tomography
(b) cystoscopy
(c) cryology
(d) cosmology
Answer: (d)
Cosmology is the branch of astronomy involving the origin and evolution of the universe, from the Big Bang to today and on into the future. According to NASA, the definition of cosmology is “the scientific study of the large scale properties of the universe as a whole.”

149) According to Kepler’s Laws, all orbits of the planets are:
(a) ellipses
(b) parabolas
(c) hyperbolas
(d) square
Answer: (a)
Johannes Kepler, working with data painstakingly collected by Tycho Brahe without the aid of a telescope, developed three laws which described the motion of the planets across the sky.
1. The Law of Orbits: All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one focus.
2. The Law of Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
3. The Law of Periods: The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
Kepler’s laws were derived for orbits around the sun, but they apply to satellite orbits as well.

General Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III) Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Manipur Quiz

1. When did Manipur become a state?
  • Correct Answer: 21 July 1972

2. What does Manipur mean?

  • Correct Answer: City of gems

3. Which state is to the north of Manipur?

  • Correct Answer: Nagaland

4. Which state is to the west of Manipur?

  • Correct Answer: Assam

5. Which country is to the east of Manipur?

  • Correct Answer: Burma

6. Which is the capital of Manipur?

  • Correct Answer: Imphal

7. Which lake is the source of Manipur River?

  • Correct Answer: Loktak Lake

8. What is the area of Manipur?

  • Correct Answer: 8,621 sq. mi.

9. When was Manipuri added to the eighth schedule of the constitution?

  • Correct Answer: 1992

10. Who was Manipur’s chief minister in 1995?

  • Correct Answer: Rishang Keishing

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Questions

Click here for answers

1. When was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) 4 February 1924
b) 2 April 1918
c) 7 September 1914
d) 28 December 1912

2. Where was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) Mount Pleasant
b) Silver Spring
c) Dartmouth
d) Charlestown

3. Which college did James Alfred Van Allen attend?
a) William and Mary College
b) Iowa Wesleyan College
c) St. Dominic’s College
d) Sacred Heart College

4. What was Aerobee which James Alfred Van Allen helped develop?
a) Missile
b) Satellite
c) Rocket
d) Destroyer

5. When was James Alfred Van Allen professor of physics at the University of Iowa?
a) 1951-1985
b) 1942-1946
c) 1946-1950
d) 1988-1998

6. What was the year 1957-1958?
a) Second International Polar Year
b) International Geophysical Year
c) International Year of Youth
d) International Year of Telecommunications

7. When was Explorer launched?
a) 26 July 1969
b) 12 June 1964
c) 31 January 1958
d) 12 November 1952

8. When did James Alfred Van Allen discover Van Allen radiation belts?
a) 1948
b) 1972
c) 1962
d) 1958

9. When did James Alfred Van Allen die?
a) 26 March 2008
b) 9 August 2006
c) 28 May 2004
d) 14 October 2012

10. Where did James Alfred Van Allen die?
a) New York
b) San Francisco
c) Los Angeles
d) Iowa City

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was James Alfred Van Allen born?
c) 7 September 1914

2. Where was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) Mount Pleasant

3. Which college did James Alfred Van Allen attend?
b) Iowa Wesleyan College

4. What was Aerobee which James Alfred Van Allen helped develop?
c) Rocket

5. When was James Alfred Van Allen professor of physics at the University of Iowa?
a) 1951-1985

6. What was the year 1957-1958?
b) International Geophysical Year

7. When was Explorer launched?
c) 31 January 1958

8. When did James Alfred Van Allen discover Van Allen radiation belts?
d) 1958

9. When did James Alfred Van Allen die?
b) 9 August 2006

10. Where did James Alfred Van Allen die?
d) Iowa City

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Brunei Quiz

Brunei Quiz Questions

1) When did Brunei become independent?
a) 1 January 1984
b) 26 May 1976
c) 11 September 1972
d) 26 November 1981

2) Who is the head of state of Brunei?
a) Caliph
b) Emir
c) Nawab
d) Sultan

3) Which country is to the east, west and south of Brunei?
a) Vietnam
b) Laos
c) Malaysia
d) Cambodia

4) Which sea is to the north of Brunei?
a) Arabian
b) South China
c) Java
d) Cara

5) Which is the capital of Brunei?
a) Bandar Seri Begawan
b) Labu
c) Medit
d) Sukang

6) Which is the official religion of Brunei?
a) Bahai
b) Islam
c) Jainism
d) Shintoism

7) When was the Islamic University of Sultan Sharif Ali opened?
a) 1988
b) 1996
c) 2007
d) 2000

 

8) Which is the currency of Brunei?
a) Dirham
b) Dollar
c) Taka
d) Riyal

9) Which is the official language of Brunei?
a) Arabic
b) Hindi
c) Malay
d) Urdu

10) What is the area of Brunei?
a) 820 sq. mi.
b) 2,226 sq. mi.
c) 7,210 sq. mi.
d) 594 sq. mi.

Brunei Quiz Questions with Answers

 

1) When did Brunei become independent?
a) 1 January 1984

2) Who is the head of state of Brunei?
d) Sultan

3) Which country is to the east, west and south of Brunei?
c) Malaysia

4) Which sea is to the north of Brunei?
b) South China

5) Which is the capital of Brunei?
a) Bandar Seri Begawan

6) Which is the official religion of Brunei?
b) Islam

7) When was the Islamic University of Sultan Sharif Ali opened?
c) 2007

8) Which is the currency of Brunei?
b) Dollar

9) Which is the official language of Brunei?
c) Malay

10) What is the area of Brunei?
b) 2,226 sq. mi.

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MCQs / Q&A, World

Kurt Waldheim Quiz

Kurt Waldheim Quiz Questions

1. When was Kurt Waldheim secretary general of United Nations?
a) 1972-1981
b) 1945-1949
c) 1951-1960
d) 1961-1970

2. When was Kurt Waldheim born?
a) 12 January 1919
b) 7 April 1914
c) 17 July 1918
d) 21 December 1918

3. Where was Kurt Waldheim born?
a) Linz
b) Graz
c) Sankt Andra-Worden
d) Weiz

4. When did Kurt Waldheim lead Austria’s first delegation to United Nations?
a) 1953
b) 1957
c) 1955
d) 1954

5. Where did Kurt Waldheim represent Austria as minister plenipotentiary?
a) Canada
b) India
c) Pakistan
d) Australia

6. What was Kurt Waldheim’s post in 1968-1970?
a) Attorney General
b) Prime Minister
c) Foreign Minister
d) Home Secretary

7. When was Kurt Waldheim ambassador to United Nations?
a) 1952-1954
b) 1956-1958, 1961-1962
c) 1964-1968, 1970-1971
d) 1988-1992

8. When was Kurt Waldheim President of Austria?
a) 1982-1984
b) 1986-1992
c) 1948-1952
d) 1994-1996

9. When did Kurt Waldheim die?
a) 12 February 2000
b) 14 June 2007
c) 18 September 2009
d) 28 November 1995

10. Where did Kurt Waldheim die?
a) Wolfsberg
b) Vienna
c) Hallein
d) Bruck

Kurt Waldheim Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Kurt Waldheim secretary general of United Nations?
a) 1972-1981

2. When was Kurt Waldheim born?
d) 21 December 1918

3. Where was Kurt Waldheim born?
c) Sankt Andra-Worden

4. When did Kurt Waldheim lead Austria’s first delegation to United Nations?
c) 1955

5. Where did Kurt Waldheim represent Austria as minister plenipotentiary?
a) Canada

6. What was Kurt Waldheim’s post in 1968-1970?
c) Foreign Minister

7. When was Kurt Waldheim ambassador to United Nations?
c) 1964-1968, 1970-1971

8. When was Kurt Waldheim President of Austria?
b) 1986-1992

9. When did Kurt Waldheim die?
b) 14 June 2007

10. Where did Kurt Waldheim die?
b) Vienna

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities, Political Science

Liechtenstein Quiz

Liechtenstein Quiz Questions

1. Which country is to the east of Liechtenstein?
a) Belgium
b) Ireland
c) Austria
d) Portugal

2. Which is the capital of Liechtenstein?
a) Eschen
b) Planken
c) Triessen
d) Vaduz

3. Which is the official language of Liechtenstein?
a) Italian
b) German
c) Swedish
d) Dutch

4. Which is the currency of Liechtenstein?
a) Euro
b) Peso
c) Krone
d) Swiss Franc

5. When did Liechtenstein become a member of European Free Trade Association?
a) 1986
b) 1994
c) 1991
d) 1972

6. Which country is responsible for Liechtenstein’s defence?
a) Switzerland
b) Italy
c) Cyprus
d) Malta

7. Who was the prince of Liechtenstein in 1938-1989?
a) Rainier III
b) Francis Joseph II
c) Albert II
d) Soulivong Savang

8. Who was the prime minister of Liechtenstein in 2006?
a) Nouhak Phoumsavan
b) Francis Joseph II
c) Otmas Hasler
d) Hans Adam I

9. When did the International Court of Justice reject Liechtenstein’s claim for damages from Germany for assets seized in 1945?
a) 10 February 2005
b) 24 May 2008
c) 14 September 1994
d) 4 December 1998

10. When did Hans Adam II transfer day-to-day governing power in Liechtenstein to Alois?
a) 14 March 2001
b) 17 April 2006
c) 15 August 2004
d) 18 November 2000

Liechtenstein Quiz Questions with Answers

1. Which country is to the east of Liechtenstein?
c) Austria

2. Which is the capital of Liechtenstein?
d) Vaduz

3. Which is the official language of Liechtenstein?
b) German

4. Which is the currency of Liechtenstein?
d) Swiss Franc

5. When did Liechtenstein become a member of European Free Trade Association?
c) 1991

6. Which country is responsible for Liechtenstein’s defence?
a) Switzerland

7. Who was the prince of Liechtenstein in 1938-1989?
b) Francis Joseph II

8. Who was the prime minister of Liechtenstein in 2006?
c) Otmas Hasler

9. When did the International Court of Justice reject Liechtenstein’s claim for damages from Germany for assets seized in 1945?
a) 10 February 2005

10. When did Hans Adam II transfer day-to-day governing power in Liechtenstein to Alois?
c) 15 August 2004

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MCQs / Q&A, World

Eisaku Sato Quiz

Eisaku Sato Quiz Questions

1. When was Eisaku Sato Prime Minister of Japan?
a) 1943-1948
b) 1964-1972
c) 1974-1977
d) 1969-1973

2. When was Eisaku Sato born?
a) 27 March 1901
b) 1 April 1900
c) 9 August 1902
d) 12 December 1903

3. Where was Eisaku Sato born?
a) Osaka
b) Kyoto
c) Fukuoka
d) Tabuse

4. From which university did Eisaku Sato graduate?
a) Okinawa University
b) Tokyo Imperial University
c) Nara University
d) Kobe University

5. What was Eisaku Sato’s portfolio in 1952?
a) Home
b) Finance
c) Construction
d) Defence

6. Which party did Eisaku Sato join in 1948?
a) Conservative
b) Liberal
c) Progressive
d) Republican

7. Which islands were returned by USA to Japan in 1972?
a) Hawaii
b) Ryukyu
c) Christmas
d) Paracel

8. When did Eisaku Sato get Nobel Prize for Peace?
a) 1986
b) 1977
c) 1974
d) 1994

9. When did Eisaku Sato die?
a) 23 February 1984
b) 3 June 1975
c) 5 July 1979
d) 6 November 1995

10. Where did Eisaku Sato die?
a) Tokyo
b) Akita
c) Kochi
d) Nagasaki

Eisaku Sato Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Eisaku Sato Prime Minister of Japan?
b) 1964-1972

2. When was Eisaku Sato born?
a) 27 March 1901

3. Where was Eisaku Sato born?
d) Tabuse

4. From which university did Eisaku Sato graduate?
b) Tokyo Imperial University

5. What was Eisaku Sato’s portfolio in 1952?
c) Construction

6. Which party did Eisaku Sato join in 1948?
b) Liberal

7. Which islands were returned by USA to Japan in 1972?
b) Ryukyu

8. When did Eisaku Sato get Nobel Prize for Peace?
c) 1974

9. When did Eisaku Sato die?
b) 3 June 1975

10. Where did Eisaku Sato die?
a) Tokyo

 

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Abdus Salam Quiz

Abdus Salam Quiz Questions

(Some sources claim Abdus Salam was born in Santokdas.)

1. When did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
a) 1972
b) 1979
c) 1984
d) 1986

2. When was Abdus Salam born?
a) 29 January 1926
b) 2 May 1914
c) 19 September 1918
d) 21 December 1922

3. Where was Abdus Salam born?
a) Ludhiana
b) Peshawar
c) Jhang Maghiana
d) Multan

4. Which college did Abdus Salam attend in 1940-1944?
a) Anglo-Mohammedan College
b) King Edward Medical College
c) Aitchison College
d) Government College

5. Where was Abdus Salam professor of theoretical physics in 1957-1960?
a) Lahore College for Women
b) Imperial College of Science and Technology
c) Hailey College of Commerce
d) California Institute of Technology

6. What was set up on 16 September 1961 on the advice of Abdus Salam?
a) Pakistan Atomic Energy Commission
b) International Centre for Theoretical Physics
c) Pakistan Academy of Sciences
d) Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission

7. For what did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
a) Formulating the electroweak theory
b) Discovery of argon
c) Spectroscopic and metrological investigations
d) Development of wireless telegraphy

8. When did Abdus Salam die?
a) 1 January 2001
b) 4 April 1998
c) 8 August 2002
d) 21 November 1996

9. Where did Abdus Salam die?
a) Karachi
b) Rawalpindi
c) Oxford
d) Faisalabad

10. The epitaph on Abdus Salam’s tomb read “First Muslim Nobel Laureate.” Which word was erased?
a) First
b) Muslim
c) Nobel
d) Laureate

Abdus Salam Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
b) 1979

2. When was Abdus Salam born?
a) 29 January 1926

3. Where was Abdus Salam born?
c) Jhang Maghiana

4. Which college did Abdus Salam attend in 1940-1944?
d) Government College

5. Where was Abdus Salam professor of theoretical physics in 1957-1960?
b) Imperial College of Science and Technology

6. What was set up on 16 September 1961 on the advice of Abdus Salam?
d) Space and Upper Atmosphere Research Commission

7. For what did Abdus Salam win Nobel Prize for Physics?
a) Formulating the electroweak theory

8. When did Abdus Salam die?
d) 21 November 1996

9. Where did Abdus Salam die?
c) Oxford

10. The epitaph on Abdus Salam’s tomb read “First Muslim Nobel Laureate.” Which word was erased?
b) Muslim

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities