Severe

September 30 – History, Events, Births, Deaths, Holidays and Observances On This Day

by

It is the last day of the third quarter, the midway point of the second half of the year.

  • 489 – The Ostrogoths under Theoderic the Great defeat the forces of Odoacer for the second time.
  • 737 – The Turgesh drive back an Umayyad invasion of Khuttal, follow them south of the Oxus, and capture their baggage train.
  • 1399 – Henry IV is proclaimed king of England.
  • 1520 – Suleiman the Magnificent is proclaimed sultan of the Ottoman Empire.
  • 1541 – Spanish conquistador Hernando de Soto and his forces enter Tula territory in present-day western Arkansas, encountering fierce resistance.
  • 1551 – A coup by the military establishment of Japan’s Ōuchi clan forces their lord to commit suicide, and their city is burned.
  • 1744 – War of the Austrian Succession: France and Spain defeat Sardinia at the Battle of Madonna dell’Olmo, but soon have to withdraw from Sardinia anyway.
  • 1791 – The first performance of Mozart’s opera The Magic Flute takes place two months before his death.
  • 1791 – France’s National Constituent Assembly is dissolved, to be replaced the next day by the National Legislative Assembly
  • 1882 – Thomas Edison’s first commercial hydroelectric power plant (later known as Appleton Edison Light Company) begins operation.
  • 1888 – Jack the Ripper kills his third and fourth victims, Elizabeth Stride and Catherine Eddowes.
  • 1906 – The Royal Galician Academy, the Galician language’s biggest linguistic authority, starts working in La Coruña, Spain.
  • 1907 – The McKinley National Memorial, the final resting place of assassinated U.S. President William McKinley and his family, is dedicated in Canton, Ohio.
  • 1909 – The Cunard Line’s RMS Mauretania makes a record-breaking westbound crossing of the Atlantic, that will not be bettered for 20 years.
  • 1915 – World War I: Radoje Ljutovac becomes the first soldier in history to shoot down an enemy aircraft with ground-to-air fire.
  • 1922 – The University of Alabama opens the American football season with a 110–0 victory over the Marion Military Institute, which still stands as Alabama’s record for largest margin of victory and as their only 100 point game.
  • 1927 – Babe Ruth becomes the first baseball player to hit 60 home runs in a season.
  • 1931 – Start of “Die Voortrekkers” youth movement for Afrikaners in Bloemfontein, South Africa.
  • 1935 – The Hoover Dam, astride the border between the U.S. states of Arizona and Nevada, is dedicated.
  • 1938 – Britain, France, Germany and Italy sign the Munich Agreement, whereby Germany annexes the Sudetenland region of Czechoslovakia.
  • 1938 – The League of Nations unanimously outlaws “intentional bombings of civilian populations”.
  • 1939 – World War II: General Władysław Sikorski becomes prime minister of the Polish government-in-exile.
  • 1939 – NBC broadcasts the first televised American football game.
  • 1941 – World War II: The Babi Yar massacre comes to an end.
  • 1943 – The United States Merchant Marine Academy is dedicated by President Roosevelt.
  • 1945 – The Bourne End rail crash, in Hertfordshire, England, kills 43
  • 1947 – The 1947 World Series is the first to be televised, to include an African-American player, to exceed $2 million in receipts, to see a pinch-hit home run, and to have six umpires on the field.
  • 1947 – Pakistan joins the United Nations.
  • 1949 – The Berlin Airlift ends.
  • 1954 – The U.S. Navy submarine USS Nautilus is commissioned as the world’s first nuclear-powered vessel.
  • 1962 – Mexican-American labor leader César Chávez founds the National Farm Workers Association.
  • 1962 – James Meredith enters the University of Mississippi, defying racial segregation rules.
  • 1965 – The Lockheed L-100, the civilian version of the C-130 Hercules, is introduced.
  • 1965 – In Indonesia, a coup by the 30 September Movement is crushed, leading to a mass anti-communist purge, with over 500,000 people killed.
  • 1966 – Bechuanaland declares its independence, and becomes the Republic of Botswana.
  • 1967 – The BBC Light Programme, Third Programme and Home Service are replaced with BBC Radio 2, 3 and 4 Respectively, BBC Radio 1 is also launched.
  • 1968 – The Boeing 747 is rolled out and shown to the public for the first time.
  • 1970 – Jordan makes a deal with the PFLP for the release of the remaining hostages from the Dawson’s Field hijackings.
  • 1972 – Roberto Clemente records the 3,000th and final hit of his career.
  • 1975 – The AH-64 Apache makes its first flight. Eight years later, the first production model rolled out of the assembly line.
  • 1977 – Because of NASA budget cuts and dwindling power reserves, the Apollo program’s ALSEP experiment packages left on the Moon are shut down.
  • 1980 – Ethernet specifications are published by Xerox working with Intel and Digital Equipment Corporation.
  • 1990 – The Dalai Lama unveils the Canadian Tribute to Human Rights in Canada’s capital city of Ottawa.
  • 1993 – The 6.2 Mw  Latur earthquake shakes Maharashtra, India with a maximum Mercalli intensity of VIII (Severe) killing 9,748 and injuring 30,000.
  • 1994 – Aldwych tube station (originally Strand Station) of the London Underground closes after eighty-eight years in service.
  • 1994 – Ongar railway station, the furthest London Underground from central London, closes.
  • 1999 – The Tokaimura nuclear accident causes the deaths of two technicians in Japan’s second-worst nuclear accident.
  • 2000 – Israeli-Palestinian conflict: 12-year-old Muhammad al-Durrah is shot and killed on the second day of the Second Intifada.
  • 2004 – The AIM-54 Phoenix, the primary missile for the F-14 Tomcat, is retired from service. Almost two years later, the Tomcat itself is retired.
  • 2005 – Controversial drawings of Muhammad are printed in a Danish newspaper.
  • 2009 – The 7.6 Mw  Sumatra earthquake leaves 1,115 people dead.
  • 2016 – Hurricane Matthew becomes a Category 5 hurricane, making it the strongest hurricane to form in the Caribbean Sea since 2007.
  • 2016 – Two paintings with a combined value of $100 million are recovered after having been stolen from the Van Gogh Museum in 2002.

Births on September 30

  • 1207 – Rumi, Persian mystic and poet (d. 1273)
  • 1227 – Pope Nicholas IV (d. 1292)
  • 1530 – Girolamo Mercuriale, Italian philologist and physician (d. 1606)
  • 1550 – Michael Maestlin, German astronomer and mathematician (d. 1631)
  • 1622 – Johann Sebastiani, German composer (d. 1683)
  • 1689 – Jacques Aubert, French violinist and composer (d. 1753)
  • 1700 – Stanisław Konarski, Polish monk, poet, and playwright (d. 1773)
  • 1710 – John Russell, 4th Duke of Bedford, English politician, Lord President of the Council (d. 1771)
  • 1714 – Étienne Bonnot de Condillac, French epistemologist and philosopher (d. 1780)
  • 1732 – Jacques Necker, Swiss-French politician, Prime Minister of France (d. 1804)
  • 1743 – Christian Ehregott Weinlig, German cantor and composer (d. 1813)
  • 1765 – José María Morelos, Mexican priest and general (d. 1815)
  • 1800 – Decimus Burton, English architect, designed the Pharos Lighthouse (d. 1881)
  • 1813 – John Rae, Scottish physician and explorer (d. 1893)
  • 1814 – Lucinda Hinsdale Stone, American feminist, educator, and philanthropist (d. 1900)
  • 1827 – Ellis H. Roberts, American journalist and politician, 20th Treasurer of the United States (d. 1918)
  • 1832 – Ann Jarvis, American activist, co-founded Mother’s Day (d. 1905)
  • 1836 – Remigio Morales Bermúdez, Peruvian politician, 56th President of Peru (d. 1894)
  • 1852 – Charles Villiers Stanford, Irish composer, conductor, and educator (d. 1924)
  • 1861 – William Wrigley, Jr., American businessman, founded Wrigley Company (d. 1932)
  • 1863 – Reinhard Scheer, German admiral (d. 1928)
  • 1870 – Thomas W. Lamont, American banker and philanthropist (d. 1948)
  • 1870 – Jean Baptiste Perrin, French-American physicist and chemist, Nobel Prize laureate (d. 1942)
  • 1882 – Hans Geiger, German physicist and academic (d. 1945)
  • 1883 – Bernhard Rust, German educator and politician (d. 1945)
  • 1883 – Nora Stanton Blatch Barney, American civil engineer, architect, and suffragist (d. 1971)
  • 1887 – Lil Dagover, Indonesian-German actress (d. 1980)
  • 1893 – Lansdale Ghiselin Sasscer, American lieutenant, lawyer, and politician (d. 1964)
  • 1895 – Lewis Milestone, Moldovan-American director, producer, and screenwriter (d. 1980)
  • 1897 – Gaspar Cassadó, Spanish cellist and composer (d. 1966)
  • 1897 – Alfred Wintle, Russian-English soldier and politician (d. 1966)
  • 1897 – Charlotte Wolff, German-English physician and psychotherapist (d. 1986)
  • 1898 – Renée Adorée, French-American actress (d. 1933)
  • 1898 – Princess Charlotte, Duchess of Valentinois (d. 1977)
  • 1898 – Edgar Parin d’Aulaire, German-American author and illustrator (d. 1986)
  • 1901 – Thelma Terry, American bassist and bandleader (d. 1966)
  • 1904 – Waldo Williams, Welsh poet and academic (d. 1971)
  • 1905 – Nevill Francis Mott, English physicist and academic, Nobel Prize laureate (d. 1996)
  • 1905 – Michael Powell, English director, producer, and screenwriter (d. 1990)
  • 1906 – Mireille Hartuch, French singer-songwriter and actress (d. 1996)
  • 1908 – David Oistrakh, Ukrainian-Russian violinist and educator (d. 1974)
  • 1910 – Jussi Kekkonen, Finnish captain (d. 1962)
  • 1911 – Gustave Gilbert, American psychologist (d. 1977)
  • 1912 – Kenny Baker, American singer and actor (d. 1985)
  • 1913 – Bill Walsh, American screenwriter and producer (d. 1975)
  • 1915 – Lester Maddox, American businessman and politician, 75th Governor of Georgia (d. 2003)
  • 1917 – Yuri Lyubimov, Russian actor and director (d. 2014)
  • 1917 – Buddy Rich, American drummer, bandleader, and actor (d. 1987)
  • 1918 – Lewis Nixon, U.S. Army captain (d. 1995)
  • 1918 – René Rémond, French historian and economist (d. 2007)
  • 1919 – Roberto Bonomi, Argentinian race car driver (d. 1992)
  • 1919 – Elizabeth Gilels, Ukrainian-Russian violinist and educator (d. 2008)
  • 1919 – William L. Guy, American lieutenant and politician, 26th Governor of North Dakota (d. 2013)
  • 1919 – Patricia Neway, American soprano and actress (d. 2012)
  • 1921 – Deborah Kerr, Scottish-English actress (d. 2007)
  • 1921 – Aldo Parisot, Brazilian-American cellist and educator (d. 2018)
  • 1922 – Lamont Johnson, American actor, director, and producer (d. 2010)
  • 1922 – Hrishikesh Mukherjee, Indian director, producer, and screenwriter (d. 2006)
  • 1923 – Donald Swann, Welsh-English pianist and composer (d. 1994)
  • 1924 – Truman Capote, American novelist, playwright, and screenwriter (d. 1984)
  • 1925 – Arkady Ostashev, Russian engineer and educator (d. 1998)
  • 1926 – Heino Kruus, Estonian basketball player and coach (d. 2012)
  • 1926 – Robin Roberts, American baseball player, coach, and sportscaster (d. 2010)
  • 1927 – W. S. Merwin, American poet and translator (d. 2019)
  • 1928 – Elie Wiesel, Romanian-American author, academic, and activist, Nobel Prize laureate (d. 2016)
  • 1928 – Ray Willsey, Canadian-American football player and coach (d. 2013)
  • 1929 – Carol Fenner, American author and illustrator (d. 2002)
  • 1929 – Vassilis Papazachos, Greek seismologist and academic
  • 1929 – Leticia Ramos-Shahani, Filipino politician, diplomat and writer (d. 2017)
  • 1929 – Dorothee Sölle, German theologian and author (d. 2003)
  • 1931 – Angie Dickinson, American actress
  • 1931 – Teresa Gorman, English educator and politician (d. 2015)
  • 1932 – Shintaro Ishihara, Japanese author, playwright, and politician, Governor of Tokyo
  • 1932 – Johnny Podres, American baseball player and coach (d. 2008)
  • 1933 – Michel Aoun, Lebanese general and politician, President of Lebanon
  • 1933 – Cissy Houston, American singer
  • 1934 – Alan A’Court, English footballer and manager (d. 2009)
  • 1934 – Udo Jürgens, Austrian-Swiss singer-songwriter and pianist (d. 2014)
  • 1934 – Anna Kashfi, Indian-American actress (d. 2015)
  • 1935 – Johnny Mathis, American singer and actor
  • 1936 – Jim Sasser, American lawyer and politician, 6th United States Ambassador to China
  • 1936 – Sevgi Soysal, Turkish author (d. 1976)
  • 1937 – Jurek Becker, Polish-German author (d. 1997)
  • 1937 – Valentyn Sylvestrov, Ukrainian pianist and composer
  • 1937 – Gary Hocking, Rhodesian motorcycle racer (d. 1962)
  • 1938 – Alan Hacker, English clarinet player and educator (d. 2012)
  • 1939 – Len Cariou, Canadian actor
  • 1939 – Anthony Green, English painter and academic
  • 1939 – Jean-Marie Lehn, French chemist and academic, Nobel Prize laureate
  • 1940 – Claudia Card, American philosopher and academic (d. 2015)
  • 1940 – Harry Jerome, Canadian sprinter (d. 1982)
  • 1940 – Dewey Martin, Canadian-American drummer (d. 2009)
  • 1941 – Samuel F. Pickering, Jr., American author and educator
  • 1941 – Kamalesh Sharma, Indian academic and diplomat, 5th Commonwealth Secretary General
  • 1941 – Reine Wisell, Swedish race car driver
  • 1942 – Gus Dudgeon, English record producer (d. 2002)
  • 1942 – Frankie Lymon, American singer-songwriter (d. 1968)
  • 1943 – Johann Deisenhofer, German-American biochemist and biophysicist, Nobel Prize laureate
  • 1943 – Marilyn McCoo, American singer
  • 1943 – Philip Moore, English organist and composer
  • 1943 – Ian Ogilvy, English-American actor, playwright, and author
  • 1944 – Diane Dufresne, Canadian singer and painter
  • 1944 – Jimmy Johnstone, Scottish footballer (d. 2006)
  • 1944 – Red Robbins, American basketball player (d. 2009)
  • 1945 – Richard Edwin Hills, English astronomer and academic
  • 1945 – Ehud Olmert, Israeli lawyer and politician, 12th Prime Minister of Israel
  • 1946 – Fran Brill, American actress, singer, and puppeteer
  • 1946 – Robert Gascoyne-Cecil, 7th Marquess of Salisbury, English academic and politician, Leader of the House of Lords
  • 1946 – Héctor Lavoe, Puerto Rican-American singer-songwriter (d. 1993)
  • 1946 – Jochen Mass, German race car driver
  • 1946 – Paul Sheahan, Australian cricketer and educator
  • 1946 – Claude Vorilhon, French journalist, founded Raëlism
  • 1947 – Marc Bolan, English singer-songwriter and guitarist (d. 1977)
  • 1947 – Rula Lenska, English actress
  • 1948 – Craig Kusick, American baseball player and coach (d. 2006)
  • 1950 – Laura Esquivel, Mexican author and screenwriter
  • 1950 – Victoria Tennant, English actress and dancer
  • 1951 – John Lloyd, English screenwriter and producer
  • 1951 – Barry Marshall, Australian physician and academic, Nobel Prize laureate
  • 1951 – Simon White, English astrophysicist and academic
  • 1952 – John Lombardo, American singer-songwriter and guitarist
  • 1953 – Matt Abts, American drummer
  • 1953 – Deborah Allen, American country music singer-songwriter, author, and actress
  • 1954 – Basia, Polish singer-songwriter and record producer
  • 1954 – Scott Fields, American guitarist and composer
  • 1954 – Patrice Rushen, American singer-songwriter and producer
  • 1955 – Andy Bechtolsheim, German engineer, co-founded Sun Microsystems
  • 1955 – Frankie Kennedy, Northern Irish flute player (d. 1994)
  • 1956 – Trevor Morgan, English footballer and manager
  • 1957 – Fran Drescher, American actress, producer, and screenwriter
  • 1958 – Marty Stuart, American singer-songwriter and guitarist
  • 1959 – Ettore Messina, Italian basketball player and coach
  • 1960 – Julia Adamson, Canadian-English keyboard player, composer, and producer
  • 1960 – Nicola Griffith, English-American author
  • 1960 – Miki Howard, American singer-songwriter, producer, and actress
  • 1960 – Blanche Lincoln, American politician
  • 1961 – Gary Coyne, Australian rugby league player
  • 1961 – Eric Stoltz, American actor, director, and producer
  • 1961 – Mel Stride, English politician
  • 1961 – Eric van de Poele, Belgian race car driver
  • 1963 – David Barbe, American bass player and producer
  • 1964 – Trey Anastasio, American singer-songwriter, guitarist, and composer
  • 1964 – Monica Bellucci, Italian actress and fashion model
  • 1965 – Omid Djalili, English comedian, actor, and producer
  • 1966 – Gary Armstrong, Scottish rugby player
  • 1966 – Markus Burger, German pianist, composer, and educator
  • 1967 – Emmanuelle Houdart, Swiss-French author and illustrator
  • 1969 – Gintaras Einikis, Lithuanian basketball player
  • 1969 – Chris von Erich, American wrestler (d. 1991)
  • 1970 – Tony Hale, American actor and producer
  • 1970 – Damian Mori, Australian footballer and manager
  • 1971 – Jenna Elfman, American actress and producer
  • 1972 – Jamal Anderson, American football player and sportscaster
  • 1972 – Ari Behn, Danish-Norwegian author and playwright (d. 2019)
  • 1972 – John Campbell, American bass player and songwriter
  • 1972 – Mayumi Kojima, Japanese singer-songwriter
  • 1972 – José Lima, Dominican-American baseball player (d. 2010)
  • 1974 – Jeremy Giambi, American baseball player
  • 1974 – Tom Greatrex, English politician
  • 1974 – Ben Phillips, English cricketer
  • 1974 – Daniel Wu, American–born Hong Kong actor, director, and producer
  • 1975 – Jay Asher, American author
  • 1975 – Marion Cotillard, French-American actress and singer
  • 1975 – Carlos Guillén, Venezuelan baseball player
  • 1975 – Laure Pequegnot, French skier
  • 1975 – Christopher Jackson, American actor, singer, musician, and composer
  • 1976 – Georgie Bingham, British radio and television presenter
  • 1977 – Roy Carroll, Northern Irish goalkeeper and manager
  • 1977 – Nick Curran, American singer-songwriter, guitarist, and producer (d. 2012)
  • 1978 – Małgorzata Glinka-Mogentale, Polish female volleyball player
  • 1979 – Cameron Bruce, Australian footballer and coach
  • 1979 – Andy van der Meyde, Dutch footballer
  • 1980 – Martina Hingis, Czechoslovakia-born Swiss tennis player
  • 1980 – Milagros Sequera, Venezuelan tennis player
  • 1981 – Cecelia Ahern, Irish author
  • 1981 – Dominique Moceanu, American gymnast
  • 1982 – Lacey Chabert, American actress
  • 1982 – Ryane Clowe, Canadian ice hockey player
  • 1982 – Yan Stastny, Canadian ice hockey player
  • 1982 – Dmytro Boyko, Ukrainian footballer
  • 1983 – Boniek Forbes, Guinea-Bissau footballer
  • 1983 – Andreea Răducan, Romanian gymnast
  • 1984 – Georgios Eleftheriou, Greek footballer
  • 1985 – Adam Cooney, Australian footballer
  • 1985 – David Gower, Australian rugby league player
  • 1985 – Téa Obreht, Serbian-American author
  • 1985 – Cristian Rodríguez, Uruguayan footballer
  • 1985 – T-Pain, American rapper, producer, and actor
  • 1986 – Olivier Giroud, French footballer
  • 1986 – Martin Guptill, New Zealand cricketer
  • 1986 – Ben Lovett, Welsh musician and songwriter
  • 1986 – Cristián Zapata, Colombian footballer
  • 1987 – Aida Garifullina, Russian operatic soprano
  • 1988 – Eglė Staišiūnaitė, Lithuanian hurdler
  • 1989 – André Weis, German footballer
  • 1991 – Thomas Röhler, German javelin thrower
  • 1992 – Ezra Miller, American actor and singer
  • 1994 – Aliya Mustafina, Russian gymnast
  • 1996 – Jacob Host, Australian rugby league player
  • 1997 – Yana Kudryavtseva, Russian gymnast
  • 1997 – Max Verstappen, Dutch Formula One driver
  • 1998 – Trevor Moran, American youtuber and singer
  • 2002 – Maddie Ziegler, American dancer and actress
  • 2002 – Levi Miller, Australian actor and model

Deaths on September 30

  • 420 – Jerome, Roman priest, theologian, and saint (b. 347)
  • 653 – Honorius of Canterbury, Italian archbishop and saint
  • 940 – Fan Yanguang, Chinese general
  • 954 – Louis IV of France (b. 920)
  • 1101 – Anselm IV, Italian archbishop
  • 1246 – Yaroslav II of Vladimir (b. 1191)
  • 1288 – Leszek II the Black, Polish prince, Duke of Łęczyca, Sieradz, Kraków, Sandomierz (b. 1241)
  • 1440 – Reginald Grey, 3rd Baron Grey de Ruthyn, Welsh soldier and politician (b. 1362)
  • 1487 – John Sutton, 1st Baron Dudley, English politician, Lord Lieutenant of Ireland (b. 1400)
  • 1551 – Ōuchi Yoshitaka, Japanese daimyō (b. 1507)
  • 1560 – Melchior Cano, Spanish theologian (b. 1525)
  • 1572 – Francis Borgia, 4th Duke of Gandía, Spanish priest and saint, 3rd Superior General of the Society of Jesus (b. 1510)
  • 1581 – Hubert Languet, French diplomat and reformer (b. 1518)
  • 1626 – Nurhaci, Chinese emperor (b. 1559)
  • 1628 – Fulke Greville, 1st Baron Brooke, English poet and politician, Chancellor of the Exchequer (b. 1554)
  • 1770 – Thomas Robinson, 1st Baron Grantham, English politician and diplomat, Secretary of State for the Southern Department (b. 1695)
  • 1770 – George Whitefield, English-American priest and theologian (b. 1714)
  • 1865 – Samuel David Luzzatto, Italian poet and scholar (b. 1800)
  • 1891 – Georges Ernest Boulanger, French general and politician, French Minister of War (b. 1837)
  • 1897 – Thérèse of Lisieux, French nun and saint (b. 1873)
  • 1910 – Maurice Lévy, French mathematician and engineer (b. 1838)
  • 1942 – Hans-Joachim Marseille, German captain and pilot (b. 1919)
  • 1943 – Franz Oppenheimer, German-American sociologist and economist (b. 1864)
  • 1946 – Takashi Sakai, Japanese general and politician, Governor of Hong Kong (b. 1887)
  • 1955 – James Dean, American actor (b. 1931)
  • 1959 – Henry Barwell, Australian politician, 28th Premier of South Australia (b. 1877)
  • 1961 – Onésime Gagnon, Canadian scholar and politician, 20th Lieutenant Governor of Quebec (b. 1888)
  • 1973 – Peter Pitseolak, Canadian photographer and author (b. 1902)
  • 1974 – Carlos Prats, Chilean general and politician, Chilean Minister of Defense (b. 1915)
  • 1977 – Mary Ford, American singer and guitarist (b. 1924)
  • 1978 – Edgar Bergen, American actor and ventriloquist (b. 1903)
  • 1985 – Charles Francis Richter, American seismologist and physicist (b. 1900)
  • 1985 – Simone Signoret, French actress (b. 1921)
  • 1986 – Nicholas Kaldor, Hungarian-British economist (b. 1908)
  • 1987 – Alfred Bester, American author and screenwriter (b. 1913)
  • 1988 – Al Holbert, American race car driver (b. 1946)
  • 1989 – Virgil Thomson, American composer and critic (b. 1896)
  • 1990 – Rob Moroso, American race car driver (b. 1968)
  • 1990 – Alice Parizeau, Polish-Canadian journalist and author (b. 1930)
  • 1990 – Patrick White, Australian novelist, poet, and playwright, Nobel Prize laureate (b. 1912)
  • 1991 – Toma Zdravković, Serbian singer-songwriter (b. 1938)
  • 1994 – André Michel Lwoff, French microbiologist and virologist, Nobel Prize laureate (b. 1902)
  • 1998 – Marius Goring, English actor (b. 1912)
  • 1998 – Dan Quisenberry, American baseball player and poet (b. 1953)
  • 1998 – Robert Lewis Taylor, American soldier and author (b. 1912)
  • 2002 – Göran Kropp, Swedish race car driver and mountaineer (b. 1966)
  • 2002 – Hans-Peter Tschudi, Swiss lawyer and politician, 63rd President of the Swiss Confederation (b. 1913)
  • 2003 – Yusuf Bey, American activist, founded Your Black Muslim Bakery (b. 1935)
  • 2003 – Ronnie Dawson, American singer-songwriter and guitarist (b. 1939)
  • 2003 – Robert Kardashian, American lawyer and businessman (b. 1944)
  • 2004 – Gamini Fonseka, Sri Lankan actor, director, and politician (b. 1936)
  • 2004 – Jacques Levy, American director and songwriter (b. 1935)
  • 2004 – Michael Relph, English director, producer, and screenwriter (b. 1915)
  • 2008 – J. B. Jeyaretnam, Singaporean lawyer and politician (b. 1926)
  • 2010 – Stephen J. Cannell, American screenwriter and producer (b. 1941)
  • 2011 – Anwar al-Awlaki, American-Yemeni terrorist (b. 1971)
  • 2011 – Ralph M. Steinman, Canadian-American immunologist and biologist, Nobel Prize laureate (b. 1943)
  • 2012 – Turhan Bey, Austrian actor and producer (b. 1922)
  • 2012 – Barry Commoner, American biologist, academic, and politician (b. 1917)
  • 2012 – Bobby Jaggers, American wrestler and engineer (b. 1948)
  • 2012 – Clara Stanton Jones, American librarian (b. 1913)
  • 2012 – Barbara Ann Scott, Canadian-American figure skater (b. 1928)
  • 2012 – Boris Šprem, Croatian lawyer and politician, 8th Speaker of the Croatian Parliament (b. 1956)
  • 2013 – Janet Powell, Australian educator and politician (b. 1942)
  • 2014 – Molvi Iftikhar Hussain Ansari, Indian cleric and politician (b. 1940)
  • 2014 – Martin Lewis Perl, American physicist and engineer, Nobel Prize laureate (b. 1927)
  • 2015 – Guido Altarelli, Italian-Swiss physicist and academic (b. 1941)
  • 2015 – Claude Dauphin, French businessman (b. 1951)
  • 2015 – Göran Hägg, Swedish author and critic (b. 1947)
  • 2017 – Monty Hall, American game show host (b. 1921)
  • 2018 – Kim Larsen, Danish rock musician (b. 1945)
  • 2018 – Geoffrey Hayes, British television presenter and actor (b. 1942)
  • 2018 – Sonia Orbuch, Polish resistance fighter during the Second World War and Holocaust educator. (b. 1925)
  • 2019 – Victoria Braithwaite, British research scientist who proved fish feel pain (b. 1967)

Holidays and observances on September 30

  • Agricultural Reform (Nationalization) Day (São Tomé and Príncipe)
  • Birth of Morelos (Mexico)
  • Boy’s Day (Poland)
  • Christian feast day:
    • Gregory the Illuminator
    • Honorius of Canterbury
    • Jerome
    • September 30 (Eastern Orthodox liturgics)
  • Independence Day (Botswana) or Botswana Day, celebrates the independence of Botswana from United Kingdom in 1966.
  • International Translation Day (International Federation of Translators)
  • Orange Shirt Day (Canada)

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-II)

by

Click HERE for previous questions.

An example of a shield volcano is
(a) Mount Fuji
(b) Mount Pinatubo
(c) Puy de Dome
(d) Mauna Loa
Answer: (d)
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean.Mauna Loa is a shield volcano that has erupted some three dozen times since its first well-documented eruption in 1843

Volcanoes that have erupted in historic times and are still likely to erupt, are known as
(a) Active volcanoes
(b) Dormant volcanoes
(c) Extinct volcanoes
(d) Instinct volcanoes
Answer: (b)

Top of magma is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Pipe
(d) Crater
Answer: (d)
A volcanic crater is a roughly circular depression in the ground caused by volcanic activity. It is typically a bowl-shaped feature within which occurs a vent or vents

Volcano that forms from column of magma is called a/an
(a) underwater volcano
(b) convergent volcano
(c) divergent volcano
(d) hot spot volcano
Answer: (d)

Reference to how thick a liquid is known as
(a) density
(b) conductivity
(c) viscosity
(d) volatility
Answer: (c)

Fluidity of lava is determined by amount of
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) silica
Answer: (d)

A flash flood is a flood that:
(a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
(b) occurs in urban areas
(c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
(d) is caused by the blocking of drains.
Answer: (c)
Flash floods are defined by the speed of flooding, not the source or location of flooding. While flash floods are often caused by heavy rainfall, they can also result from other events, such as drain blockages and bursts or the flooding of a river.

Monsoon is caused by: (CSS-2009)
(a) Seasonal reversal of winds
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Movement of clouds
(d) Rise in temperature
(e) Rain forests
Answer: (a)
The monsoon, which is essentially the seasonal reversal in wind direction, causes most of the rainfall received in Pakistan and some other parts of the world. The primary cause of monsoons is the difference between annual temperature trends over land and sea. The apparent position of the Sun with reference to the Earth oscillates from the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn. Thus the low pressure region created by solar heating also changes latitude. The northeast and southeast trade winds converge in this low pressure zone, which is also known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ. This low pressure regions sees continuous rise of moist wind from the sea surface to the upper layers of the atmosphere, where the cooling means the air can no longer hold so much moisture resulting in precipitation. The rainy seasons of East Asia, sub-Saharan Africa, Australia and the southern parts of North America coincide with the shift of ITCZ towards these regions.

A flood can vary in:
(a) size
(b) speed of water flow
(c) duration
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size, duration and water flow speed of floods can vary. The volume, rate of rise and areal extent (i.e. the total area under flood waters) of flooding can also vary.

When a river’s water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(d) it will flood.
Answer: (c)
River height is the level of water in a river as measured by a river gauging station and is expressed in meters above either the Australian Height Datum (i.e. mean sea level) or an alternative arbitrary ‘zero’ level, depending on the location.

The size of a flood is measured by:
(a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
(b) the level of water in a waterway or river
(c) a river gauging station
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size of a flood can be measured by the highest level that water in a waterway reaches, referred to as the ‘peak water level’ or ‘flood peak’. It can also be measured by the maximum water flow rate in a waterway, referred to as the ‘peak flow rate’ or ‘peak water flow’. Each of these variables can be measured using a river gauging station.

Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?
(a) The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative.
(b) The ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual.
(c) There is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (c)
In a La Niña event, the equatorial ocean surface off the coast of South America is abnormally cool, and the SOI is strongly positive. Trade winds blow strongly across the warm Pacific, picking up plenty of moisture and increasing the likelihood of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.

Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?
(a) bridges and other structures in waterways
(b) the size and windiness of a river
(c) vegetation in and around a river
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Many factors can affect the size of a flood, including rainfall intensity, weather conditions prior to a rainfall event, tidal and storm surges, dams and other man-made and natural water storages, catchment size and shape, soil types in a catchment, vegetation in and around a waterway, the size and windiness of a waterway, levees, bridges and other structures in waterways and catchments, and urbanization.

Seasons are generated by (CSS-2012)
(a) The movement of sun around the Milky Way
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun
(c) Relativistic Quantum
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

The 2010 floods had cost the Pakistan’s economy around
(a) $17b
(b) $11b
(c) $10b
(d) $13b
Answer: (c)
It estimates that just a little less than 1pc of Pakistan’s GDP is exposed to river floods every year. It is ranked 16th by the WRI on the list of the top 20 countries with the highest GDP exposure to river floods.
The World Resources Institute (WRI) says Pakistan falls 5th on the list of top 15 countries that account for 80pc of the population exposed to river-flood risk worldwide.

In Pakistan, the most expensive natural disaster is:
(a) Drought
(b) Floods
(c) Bushfires
(d) Cyclones.
Answer: (b)
Pakistan faces a major financing challenge arising from natural catastrophes, with flooding causing an estimated annual economic impact of between three and four per cent of the federal budget,” adds the report. It estimates the annual economic impact of flooding at between $1.2bn and $1.8bn, or 0.5-0.8pc of GDP.

Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
(a) dispersal of weed species
(b) erosion of soil
(c) release of pollutants into waterways
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Floods can have negative environmental consequences, such as soil erosion, release of pollutants and excess sediments and nutrients into waterways and the ocean, dispersal of weed species, and negative impacts on fish and other aquatic life. Floods can also have positive environmental consequences, such as recharging groundwater systems, filling wetlands, moving useful nutrients around the landscape, and triggering breeding events (for example, of water birds).

Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood, based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Floodplain hydraulic models and flood maps are used to estimate which areas will be inundated based on river height information. Satellite and radar images, rain gauges and river gauging stations are used to estimate river heights.

Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Weather forecasts for a small region are more accurate than those for a large region.
(b) Weather forecasts are more accurate in Melbourne than in Darwin.
(c) Forecasts of temperature are more accurate than forecasts of rainfall.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (a)
The accuracy of weather forecasts varies depending on lead time, the size of the region of interest, the weather variable being forecast, and the latitude of the region. Generally, temperature forecasts are more accurate than rainfall forecasts; the mid-latitudes are easier to forecast than the tropics; and it is generally easier to forecast rainfall over a large area (for example, a large catchment) than local rainfall (for example, a reservoir).

Which of the following is true? Flood warnings:
(a) should not be released until the information is certain
(b) should indicate what the threat is, what
(c) action should be taken, by whom and when
(d) are best if they come from a single source
(e) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Flood warnings should provide information on what the threat is, what action should be taken, by whom and when. While it is desirable for flood warnings to be accurate, warnings are predictions about the future, so there is inevitably some uncertainty. Accuracy needs to be balanced with timeliness, to allow enough time for appropriate action. Warnings are most likely to reach different audiences and to be heeded if they come from multiple trusted sources.

Flood risk refers to:
(a) the chance of a flood occurring
(b) the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters if a flood occurs
(c) the vulnerability of people and properties that are exposed to floodwaters
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk includes both the chance (or probability) of a flood occurring, and the consequences if a flood occurs. The consequences of a flood are in turn affected by the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters for a flood of a particular size, and the vulnerability of those people and properties. For example, a river might burst its banks regularly, but if this flooding occurs in an isolated area where there are no people or infrastructure, then the risk is low. Similarly, a river might flood very rarely, but if many people and properties are located near this river and they live in dwellings that are vulnerable to water damage, then the flood risk will be greater.

Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
(a) zonings and building regulations for new developments
(b) dams, detention basins and levees
(c) flood awareness and education programs
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk in new developments can be reduced by restricting the location of development (zonings) and placing controls (regulations) on development. In existing developed areas, risk can be reduced by modifying flood behaviour (for example, through dams, detention basins, levees, waterway modifications), property modification measures (for example, land filling, flood proofing, house raising, removing developments), and response modification measures (for example, upgrading flood evacuation routes, flood warnings, flood evacuation planning, flood education programs).

The Probable Maximum Flood is:
(a) an estimation of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location
(b) the maximum flood experienced in the last 100 years
(c) the maximum flood experienced in the last 200 years
(d) the maximum flood experienced since flood records have existed.
Answer: (d)
The Probable Maximum Flood (PMF) is an estimate of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location, under the most severe meteorological and hydrological conditions as they are currently understood.

In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
(a) population growth
(b) urbanization
(c) climate change
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
In the future, climate change is likely to result in an increased chance of flash floods and coastal inundation. Australia’s growing population and urbanization are likely to place increased pressure on our waterways and to increase the chance of flooding in cities and the number of properties and people exposed to floodwaters.

In the future, which of the following is unlikely?
(a) There will be an increased chance of flash flooding and coastal inundation.
(b) Flood risk will increase due to population growth and urbanization.
(c) Improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies will reduce the impacts of floods.
(d) We will be able to eliminate the risk of flooding.
Answer: (d)
It is not possible to eliminate the risk of flooding. Indeed, it is likely that flood risk will increase in the future due to climate change, population growth and urbanization. However, we can better manage flood risk through improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies, as well as improved land use planning, floodplain management and integrated water management.

Higher level of floods and droughts are led by
(a) sand storms
(b) lower precipitation
(c) higher precipitation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)

Approximately how fast do tsunami waves travel in the open ocean?
(a) 100 km/hour
(b) 1600 km/hour
(c) 200 km/hour
(d) 400 km/hour
(e) 800 km/hour
Answer: (e)

Tsunami waves travel between 500 and 950 km/hour.
What can cause a tsunami?
(a) Landslide
(b) Underwater earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) All of the above
Tsunamis are usually generated by undersea earthquakes at tectonic plate boundaries, but they can also be triggered by underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or even a giant meteor impact with the ocean.

Do all undersea earthquakes trigger a tsunami?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
An undersea earthquake creates a tsunami only if it is of sufficient force and there is a violent enough movement of the seafloor to displace a massive amount of water.

What does the word “tsunami” mean in Japanese?
(a) Tidal wave
(b) Harbor wave
(c) Killer wave
(d) Century wave
Answer: (b)
English word “tsunami” comes from the Japanese term for “harbor wave.” Tsunamis are not the same things as tidal waves and actually consist of a series of waves.

Witnesses have said that an approaching tsunami sounds like what?
(a) Firecrackers exploding
(b) A freight train
(c) Ice cracking
(d) Nothing—there is absolute silence
Answer: (b)
Many witnesses have described the sound of an approaching tsunami as being similar to a freight train’s.

What is the most active tsunami area?
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Caribbean Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Answer: (a)
Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common.

What is the deadliest tsunami ever recorded?
(a) The 1782 South China Sea tsunami
(b) The 1868 northern Chile tsunami
(c) The 1883 South Java Sea tsunami
(d) The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
Answer: (d)
In 2004 more than 200,000 people—the most ever recorded—died in an Indian Ocean tsunami that was triggered by an earthquake off Sumatra, Indonesia.

How fast can a tsunami travel?
(a) Up to 100 miles an hour (160 kilometers an hour)
(b) Up to 200 miles an hour (320 kilometers an hour)
(c) Up to 500 miles an hour (800 kilometers an hour
(d.) Up to 1,000 miles an hour (1,600 kilometers an hour)
Answer: (c)
Tsunamis race across the sea at up to 500 miles (805 kilometers) an hour—about as fast as a jet airplane. At that pace they can cross the entire expanse of the Pacific Ocean in less than a day.

Can you detect a tsunami in the open ocean?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
No. In the open ocean, the wave length of a tsunami is hundreds of miles long and only a few feet high. Boaters are safer out at sea during a tsunami than close to shore or tied up at port.

Where was the largest tsunami in history recorded?
(a) India
(b) Philippines
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Answer: (d)
In 1971 a wall of water 278 feet (84.7 meters) high surged past Ishigaki Island, Japan. It moved a 750-block of coral 1.5 miles (2.4 kilometers) closer to shore but did little other damage.

What is frequently a warning sign of an impending tsunami?
(a) Winds suddenly change direction
(b) The sky suddenly clears
(c) Seawater suddenly retreats from the shore
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
If the tsunami’s trough reaches shore first, it sucks the water seaward, exposing the seafloor suddenly. The wave’s crest usually hits shore about five minutes later. Recognizing this phenomenon—and getting to higher ground immediately—can save lives.

Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Vegetation
(d) Coal and minerals
Answer: (d)

Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

_____ of stratosphere provides protection to our life.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Argon
Answer: 3

The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are chiefly concentrated in the_______.
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Homosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer: (a)

Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
(a) Sandy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Loamy soil
Answer: (d)

Both power and manure are provided by _______.
(a) Thermal plants
(b) Nuclear plants
(c) Biogas plants
(d) Hydroelectric plants
Answer: (c)

In the atmosphere, the layer above the troposphere is _____.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (a)

______ is the major raw material for biogas.
(a) Plant leaves
(b) Cow dung
(c) Mud
(d) Grass
Answer: (b)

A biosphere reserve conserves and preserves_______.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Wild land
(c) Natural vegetation
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of_______.
(a) Copper
(b) Uranium
Answer: (b)

Sanctuaries are established to_______.
(a) Rear animals for milk
(b) Entrap animals
(c) Protect animals
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are brought to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. Unlike animal shelters, sanctuaries do not seek to place animals with individuals or groups, instead maintaining each animal until his or her natural death. At present there are 99 Wildlife Sanctuaries in Pakistan

The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.
(a) Extinction
(b) Clad
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Species diversity
Answer: (a)
In biology and ecology, extinction is the end of an organism or of a group of organisms (taxon), normally a species. The moment of extinction is generally considered to be the death of the last individual of the species, although the capacity to breed and recover may have been lost before this point.

Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Petrol
(c) Coal
(d) Uranium
Answer: (d)
Fossil fuels are sources of energy that have developed within the earth over millions of years. Because fossil fuels – oil, natural gas, and coal – take so long to form, they are considered nonrenewable

Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of_______.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Degradation
(c) Putrification
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
The biogas plant operating on the principle of a wet anaerobic fermentation process was selected for the determination of the composition of in-put raw material which is determinative for the final biogas quality. The biogas plant is designed as an accumulation through-flow device. The biogas production takes place during the wet fermentation process in the mesophile operation (average temperature 40°C). The produced biogas is used in a cogeneration unit. The biogas plant operates in automatic mode.

Floods can be prevented by_______.
(a) Afforestation
(b) Cutting the forests
(c) Tilling the land
(d) Removing the top soil
Answer: (a)
Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stand of trees in an area where there was no forest. Reforestation is the reestablishment of forest cover, either naturally (by natural seeding, coppice, or root suckers) or artificially (by direct seeding or planting).
Afforestation Trees are planted near to the river. This means greater interception of rainwater and lower river discharge. This is a relatively low cost option, which enhances the environmental quality of the drainage basin.

Download this in PDF

The post General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-II) appeared first on CSS Times.

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I)

by

1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.

2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins

3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.

5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.

6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.

7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.

8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes

9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.

10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.

11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.

13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.

14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.

16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.

17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.

18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)

19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)

22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)

23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)

24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)

25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)

26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)

27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.

28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)

29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.

30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)

32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)

33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)

34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.

35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)

36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)

37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)

38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)

39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)

40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)

41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)

42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)

43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)

44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)

46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)

47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)

48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.

49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)

50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)

General Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III)

by

Click HERE for Q.No.1-50
Click HERE for Q.No.51-100

101) Which type of star is maintained by the pressure of an electron gas?
(a) Main Sequence Star
(b) White Dwarf
(c) Neutron Star
(d) Black Hole
Answer: (b)
White dwarfs are stars supported by pressure of degenerate electron gas. i.e. in their interiors thermal energy kT is much smaller then Fermi energy Ep. We shall derive the equations of structure of white dwarfs, sometimes called degenerate dwarfs, in the limiting case when their thermal pressure may be neglected, but the degenerate electron gas may be either non-relativistic. somewhat relativistic. or ultra-relativistic.

102) Which of the following first hypothesized that the Earth orbited the sun?
(a) Alexander the Great
(b) Copernicus
(c) Socrates
(d) Tycho Brahe
Answer: (b)
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance mathematician and astronomer who formulated a model of the universe that placed the Sun rather than the Earth at the center of the universe.

103) The LAST manned moon flight was made in what year?
(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1973 (d) 1974
Answer: (b)
The last manned landing Apollo 17 on the Moon to date, which took place on December 11, 1972, was made by Commander Eugene Cernan and lunar module pilot Harrison Schmitt who was also the first scientist on the Moon.

104) A planet is said to be at aphelion when it is:
(a) closest to the sun
(b) farthest from the sun
(c) at it’s highest point above the ecliptic
(d) at it’s lowest point below the ecliptic
Answer: (b)

105) The word Albedo refers to which of the following?
(a) The wobbling motion of a planet
(b) The amount of light a planet reflects
(c) The phase changes of a planet
(d) The brightness of a star
Answer: (b)
Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. The albedo effect when applied to the Earth is a measure of how much of the Sun’s energy is reflected back into space. Overall, the Earth’s albedo has a cooling effect. (The term ‘albedo’ is derived from the Latin for ‘whiteness’).

106) A pulsar is actually a:
(a) black hole
(b) white dwarf
(c) red giant
(d) neutron star
Answer: (d)

107) Astronomers use Cepheid’s principally as measures of what? Is it:
(a) size
(b) speed
(c) chemical composition
(d) distance
Answer: (d)

108) Where are most asteroids located? Is it between:
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Mars and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Mars and Jupiter
Answer: (d)

109) The precession of the Earth refers to the:
(a) change from night to day.
(b) Earth’s motion around the sun.
(c) change in orientation of the Earth’s axis.
(d) effect of the moon on the Earth’s orbit.
Answer: (c)
Precession is the change in orientation of the Earth’s rotational axis. The precession cycle takes about 19,000 – 23,000 years. Precession is caused by two factors: a wobble of the Earth’s axis and a turning around of the elliptical orbit of the Earth itself (Thomas, 2002). Obliquity affected the tilt of the Earth’s axis, precession affects the direction of the Earth’s axis. The change in the axis location changes the dates of perihelion (closest distance from sun) and aphelion (farthest distance from sun), and this increases the seasonal contrast in one hemisphere while decreasing it in the other hemisphere ( Kaufman, 2002). currently, the Earth is closest to the sun in the northern hemisphere winter, which makes the winters there less severe (Thomas, 2002). Another consequence of precession is a shift in the celestial poles. 5000 years ago the North Star was Thuban in the constellation Draco. Currently the North Star is Polaris in the constellation Ursa Minor.

110) The Magellanic cloud is a:
(a) nebula
(b) galaxy
(c) super nova remnant
(d) star cluster
Answer: (b)

111) The comet known as Halley’s Comet has an average period of:
(a) 56 years
(b) 66 years
(c) 76 years
(d) 86 years
Answer: (c)
Halley’s Comet orbits the Sun every 76.0 years and has an orbital eccentricity of 0.97. Comet Halley was visible in 1910 and again in 1986. Its next perihelion passage will be in early 2062.

112) Which one of the following planets has no moons?
(a) Mars
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)

113) The rocks that enter the earth’s atmosphere and blaze a trail all the way to the ground and do not burn up completely are known as:
(a) meteorites
(b) meteors
(c) asteroids
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
A meteorite is a solid piece of debris from an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that originates in outer space and survives its passage through the Earth’s atmosphere and impact with the Earth’s surface

114) 95% of the Martian atmosphere is composed of what substance?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon monoxide
Answer: (a)
The atmosphere of Mars is about 100 times thinner than Earth’s, and it is 95 percent carbon dioxide.

115) What is the motion called when a planet seems to be moving westward in the sky?
(a) Retrograde
(b) Parallax
(c) Opcentric
(d) Reverse parallax
Answer: (a)
Retrograde motion, in astronomy, describes the orbit of a celestial body that runs counter to the direction of the spin of that body which it orbits. Apparent retrograde motion, in astronomy, is the apparent motion of planets as observed from a particular vantage point.

116) In what year did Galileo first use an optical telescope to study the moon?
(a) 1492 (b) 1611
(c) 1212 (d) 1743
Answer: (b)

117) Geocentric means around:
(a) Jupiter (b) the Earth
(c) the Moon (d) the Sun
Answer: (b)

118) The Pythagoreans appear to have been the first to have taught that the Earth is:
(a) at the center of the Universe.
(b) spherical in shape.
(c) orbits around the sun.
(d) flat with sharp edges.
Answer: (b)

119) A device which would not work on the Moon is:
(a) thermometer
(b) siphon
(c) spectrometer
(d) spring balance
Answer: (b)
Siphons will not work in the International Space Station where there is air but no gravity, but neither will they work on the Moon where there is gravity but no air

120) Of the following colors, which is bent least in passing through aprism?
(a) orange (b) violet
(c) green (d) red
Answer: (d)

121) In a reflecting telescope where in the tube is the objective mirror placed?
(a) the top to the tube
(b) the middle of the tube
(c) the bottom of the tube
(d) the side of the tube
Answer: (c)

122) What does it mean when someone says that comets have eccentric orbits? Does it mean
(a) they have open orbits
(b) they have nearly circular orbits
(c) their orbits are unpredictable
(d) the sun is far from the foci of their orbits
Answer: (d)

123) What causes the gas tail of a comet to always point away from the sun?
(a) solar wind
(b) air pressure
(c) centrifugal force
(d) gravity
Answer: (a)

124) What are Saturn’s rings composed of?
(a) completely connected solid masses
(b) billions of tiny solid particles
(c) mixtures of gases
(d) highly reflective cosmic clouds
Answer: (b)

125) Of the following, which is the only planet which CANNOT be seen with the unaided eye?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
The ice giant Neptune was the first planet located through mathematical predictions rather than through regular observations of the sky. Nearly 4.5 billion kilometers (2.8 billion miles) from the Sun, Neptune orbits the Sun once every 165 years. It is invisible to the naked eye because of its extreme distance from Earth. In 2011 Neptune completed its first orbit since its discovery in 1846.

126) Accretion is:
(a) the gradual accumulation of matter in one location usually due to gravity.
(b) the process of moon formation for planets.
(c) the process of matter accumulation due to centripetal force.
(d) the disintegration of matter.
Answer: (b)

127) A blue shift means a Doppler shift of light from a(an)
(a) receding star.
(b) blue star.
(c) approaching star.
(d) fixed star.
Answer: (c)
In the Doppler effect for visible light, the frequency is shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum when the light source (such as a star) is approaching.

128) The first and largest asteroid discovered was:
(a) Pallas.
(b) Juno.
(c) Ceres.
(d) Trojan.
Answer: (c)

129) The Crab Nebula consists of the remnants of a supernova which was observed by:
(a) Brahe in 1572.
(b) Kepler and Galileo in 1604.
(c) the Chinese in 1054 A.D.
(d) several ancient civilizations in 236 B.C.
Answer: (c)
The Crab Nebula, the result of a supernova noted by Earth-bound chroniclers in 1054 A.D., is filled with mysterious filaments that are are not only tremendously complex, but appear to have less mass than expelled in the original supernova and a higher speed than expected from a free explosion. The Crab Nebula spans about 10 light-years. In the nebula’s very center lies a pulsar: a neutron star as massive as the Sun but with only the size of a small town. The Crab Pulsar rotates about 30 times each second.

130) The atmosphere of Venus contains mostly
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water
Answer: (b)
The atmosphere of Venus is composed of about 96% carbon dioxide, with most … various other corrosive compounds, and the atmosphere contains little water.

131) On the celestial sphere, the annual path of the Sun is called
(a) the eclipse path.
(b) ecliptic.
(c) diurnal.
(d) solstice.
Answer: (b)
The ecliptic is an imaginary line on the sky that marks the annual path of the sun. It is the projection of Earth’s orbit onto the celestial sphere.

132) The angular distance between a planet and the Sun, as viewed from the Earth, is called
(a) angle of inclination.
(b) elongation.
(c) latitude.
(d) opposition.
Answer: (b)
Elongation is the angular distance between the sun, and another object such a moon or a planet as seen from earth. There are several special names for these angular distances. The different names of these angles depend on the status, inferior or superior, of the planet. The planets closer to the sun than the earth are called inferior planets. The planets farther away from the sun than earth are called superior planets.
Elongation is measured from earth as the angle between the sun and the planet. Sometimes the apparent relative position of a planet in relation to the sun is called the aspect, or configuration, of a planet.

133) Which of the following has the highest density?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Earth has the highest density of any planet in the Solar System, at 5.514 g/cm3. This is considered the standard by which other planet’s densities are measured. In addition, the combination of Earth’s size, mass and density also results in a surface gravity of 9.8 m/s². This is also used as a the standard (one g) when measuring the surface gravity of other planets.

134) Which of the following planets is NOT a terrestrial planet?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer: (b)
The term terrestrial planet is derived from the Latin “Terra” (i.e. Earth). Terrestrial planets are therefore those that are “Earth-like”, meaning they are similar in structure and composition to planet Earth. All those planets found within the Inner Solar System – Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars – are examples of terrestrial planets. Each are composed primarily of silicate rock and metal, which is differentiated between a dense, metallic core and a silicate mantle.

135) Why do we see lunar eclipses much more often than solar eclipses?
(a) Lunar eclipses occur more often than solar eclipses.
(b) Lunar eclipses last longer than solar eclipses.
(c) The lunar eclipse is visible to much more of the Earth than a solar eclipse.
(d) The moon is closer to the Earth than the sun.
Answer: (c)
Lunar and solar eclipses occur with about equal frequency. Lunar eclipses are more widely visible because Earth casts a much larger shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse than the Moon casts on Earth during a solar eclipse. As a result, we are more likely to see a lunar eclipse than a solar eclipse.

136) A star like object with a very large red shift is a
(a) Neutron star.
(b) Nova.
(c) Quasar.
(d) Supernova.
Answer: (c)
Quasars: In the 1930’s, Edwin Hubble discovered that all galaxies have a positive redshift. In other words, all galaxies were receding from the Milky Way.

137) The apparent magnitude of an object in the sky describes its
(a) Size
(b) Magnification
(c) Brightness
(d) Distance
Answer: (c)

138) The Van Allen belts are:
(a) caused by the refraction of sunlight like rainbows.
(b) charged particles trapped in the Earth’s magnetic field.
(c) caused by the reflection of polar snow.
(d) caused by precession.
Answer: (b)
The Van Allen belts are a collection of charged particles, gathered in place by Earth’s magnetic field. They can wax and wane in response to incoming energy from the sun, sometimes swelling up enough to expose satellites in low-Earth orbit to damaging radiation.

139) A coordinate system based on the ecliptic system is especially useful for the studies of
(a) Planets
(b) Stars
(c) The Milky Way
(d) Galaxies
Answer: (a)

140) The mean distance of the earth from the sun in astronomical units is:
(a) 3.7 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 101
Answer: (c)
In astronomy, an astronomical unit is defined as the average distance from the Sun to the Earth, or about 150 million kilometers (93 million miles). You can abbreviate astronomical unit as AU.
Since the distances in astronomy are so vast, astronomers use this measurement to bring the size of numbers down.
For example, Earth is 1 au from the Sun, and Mars is 1.523 AU. That’s much easier than saying that Mars is 227,939,000 km away from the Sun.

141) What process produces a star’s energy?
(a) hydrogen and oxygen combustion
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) neutron beta decay
(d) nuclear fission
Answer: (b)
The enormous luminous energy of the stars comes from nuclear fusion processes in their centers. Depending upon the age and mass of a star, the energy may come from proton-proton fusion, helium fusion, or the carbon cycle.

142) What is the most distant object in the sky that the human eye can see without optical instruments?
(a) The Horsehead Nebula
(b) The Andromeda Galaxy
(c) The Sagittarius Constellation
(d) The Aurora Borealis
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy (M31) is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way and is one of a few galaxies that can be seen unaided from the Earth. In approximately 4.5 billion years the Andromeda Galaxy and the Milky Way are expected to collide and the result will be a giant elliptical galaxy. Andromeda is accompanied by 14 dwarf galaxies, including M32, M110, and possibly M33 (The Triangulum Galaxy).

143) Which civilization developed and implemented the first solar calendar?
(a) Babylonian
(b) Greek
(c) Egyptian
(d) Aztec
Answer: (c)
A solar calendar is a calendar whose dates indicate the position of the earth on its revolution around the sun and is based on the seasonal year of approximately 365 1/4 days, the time it takes the Earth to revolve once around the Sun. The Egyptians appear to have been the first to develop a solar calendar, using as a fixed point the annual sunrise reappearance of the Dog Star — Sirius, or Sothis — in the eastern sky, which coincided with the annual flooding of the Nile River. They constructed a calendar of 365 days, consisting of 12 months of 30 days each, with 5 days added at the year’s end. The Egyptians’ failure to account for the extra fraction of a day, however, caused their calendar to drift gradually into error.

144) What is the HOTTEST region of the sun?
(a) The core
(b) The photosphere
(c) The chromospheres
(d) The corona
Answer: (d)
The corona is the outermost layer of the Sun, starting at about 1300 miles (2100 km) above the solar surface (the photosphere) The temperature in the corona is 500,000 K (900,000 degrees F, 500,000 degrees C) or more, up to a few million K. The corona cannot be seen with the naked eye except during a total solar eclipse, or with the use of a coronagraph. The corona does not have an upper limit.
A study published in 2012 in Nature Communications by researchers at Northumbria University found a possible mechanism that causes some stars to have a corona that is almost 200 times hotter than their photosphere (the star’s surface).

145) The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because:
(a) the moon is not rotating about its axis.
(b) the moon’s motion was fixed at its creation by the laws of inertia.
(c) tidal forces keep the moon’s rotation and orbiting motion in sync with each other.
(d) the moon’s magnetic poles keep aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field.
Answer: (b)

146) The resolving power of a telescope depends on the:
(a) focal ratio
(b) diameter of the objective
(c) magnification
(d) focal length
Answer: (b)
The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of the telescope’s light-gathering apparatus, or objective. In a refracting telescope, the objective lens is the first lens the light passes through. In a reflecting telescope, the objective is the telescope’s primary mirror. In a Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope, the objective is also the primary mirror. As the diameter of the telescope’s objective increases, the resolving power increases.

147) On a clear, dark, moonless night, approximately how many stars can be seen with the naked eye?
(a) 300 (b) 1,000
(c) 3,000 (d) 10,000
Answer: (c)
On any clear dark moonless night a person can see about 3000 stars of our galaxy without the aid of a telescope

148) The study of the origin and evolution of the universe is known as:
(a) Tomography
(b) cystoscopy
(c) cryology
(d) cosmology
Answer: (d)
Cosmology is the branch of astronomy involving the origin and evolution of the universe, from the Big Bang to today and on into the future. According to NASA, the definition of cosmology is “the scientific study of the large scale properties of the universe as a whole.”

149) According to Kepler’s Laws, all orbits of the planets are:
(a) ellipses
(b) parabolas
(c) hyperbolas
(d) square
Answer: (a)
Johannes Kepler, working with data painstakingly collected by Tycho Brahe without the aid of a telescope, developed three laws which described the motion of the planets across the sky.
1. The Law of Orbits: All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one focus.
2. The Law of Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
3. The Law of Periods: The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
Kepler’s laws were derived for orbits around the sun, but they apply to satellite orbits as well.