A. 3rd june plan
B. Rowlett Act
C. Nehru Report
D. Lucknow Pact
Quaid-e-Azam’s 14 point were presented in response of ___________? Read More »
MCQs / Q&A, Pak Study / Affairs MCQs / Q&AClick HERE for previous questions.
An example of a shield volcano is
(a) Mount Fuji
(b) Mount Pinatubo
(c) Puy de Dome
(d) Mauna Loa
Answer: (d)
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean.Mauna Loa is a shield volcano that has erupted some three dozen times since its first well-documented eruption in 1843
Volcanoes that have erupted in historic times and are still likely to erupt, are known as
(a) Active volcanoes
(b) Dormant volcanoes
(c) Extinct volcanoes
(d) Instinct volcanoes
Answer: (b)
Top of magma is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Pipe
(d) Crater
Answer: (d)
A volcanic crater is a roughly circular depression in the ground caused by volcanic activity. It is typically a bowl-shaped feature within which occurs a vent or vents
Volcano that forms from column of magma is called a/an
(a) underwater volcano
(b) convergent volcano
(c) divergent volcano
(d) hot spot volcano
Answer: (d)
Reference to how thick a liquid is known as
(a) density
(b) conductivity
(c) viscosity
(d) volatility
Answer: (c)
Fluidity of lava is determined by amount of
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) silica
Answer: (d)
A flash flood is a flood that:
(a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
(b) occurs in urban areas
(c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
(d) is caused by the blocking of drains.
Answer: (c)
Flash floods are defined by the speed of flooding, not the source or location of flooding. While flash floods are often caused by heavy rainfall, they can also result from other events, such as drain blockages and bursts or the flooding of a river.
Monsoon is caused by: (CSS-2009)
(a) Seasonal reversal of winds
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Movement of clouds
(d) Rise in temperature
(e) Rain forests
Answer: (a)
The monsoon, which is essentially the seasonal reversal in wind direction, causes most of the rainfall received in Pakistan and some other parts of the world. The primary cause of monsoons is the difference between annual temperature trends over land and sea. The apparent position of the Sun with reference to the Earth oscillates from the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn. Thus the low pressure region created by solar heating also changes latitude. The northeast and southeast trade winds converge in this low pressure zone, which is also known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ. This low pressure regions sees continuous rise of moist wind from the sea surface to the upper layers of the atmosphere, where the cooling means the air can no longer hold so much moisture resulting in precipitation. The rainy seasons of East Asia, sub-Saharan Africa, Australia and the southern parts of North America coincide with the shift of ITCZ towards these regions.
A flood can vary in:
(a) size
(b) speed of water flow
(c) duration
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size, duration and water flow speed of floods can vary. The volume, rate of rise and areal extent (i.e. the total area under flood waters) of flooding can also vary.
When a river’s water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(d) it will flood.
Answer: (c)
River height is the level of water in a river as measured by a river gauging station and is expressed in meters above either the Australian Height Datum (i.e. mean sea level) or an alternative arbitrary ‘zero’ level, depending on the location.
The size of a flood is measured by:
(a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
(b) the level of water in a waterway or river
(c) a river gauging station
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size of a flood can be measured by the highest level that water in a waterway reaches, referred to as the ‘peak water level’ or ‘flood peak’. It can also be measured by the maximum water flow rate in a waterway, referred to as the ‘peak flow rate’ or ‘peak water flow’. Each of these variables can be measured using a river gauging station.
Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?
(a) The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative.
(b) The ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual.
(c) There is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (c)
In a La Niña event, the equatorial ocean surface off the coast of South America is abnormally cool, and the SOI is strongly positive. Trade winds blow strongly across the warm Pacific, picking up plenty of moisture and increasing the likelihood of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?
(a) bridges and other structures in waterways
(b) the size and windiness of a river
(c) vegetation in and around a river
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Many factors can affect the size of a flood, including rainfall intensity, weather conditions prior to a rainfall event, tidal and storm surges, dams and other man-made and natural water storages, catchment size and shape, soil types in a catchment, vegetation in and around a waterway, the size and windiness of a waterway, levees, bridges and other structures in waterways and catchments, and urbanization.
Seasons are generated by (CSS-2012)
(a) The movement of sun around the Milky Way
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun
(c) Relativistic Quantum
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The 2010 floods had cost the Pakistan’s economy around
(a) $17b
(b) $11b
(c) $10b
(d) $13b
Answer: (c)
It estimates that just a little less than 1pc of Pakistan’s GDP is exposed to river floods every year. It is ranked 16th by the WRI on the list of the top 20 countries with the highest GDP exposure to river floods.
The World Resources Institute (WRI) says Pakistan falls 5th on the list of top 15 countries that account for 80pc of the population exposed to river-flood risk worldwide.
In Pakistan, the most expensive natural disaster is:
(a) Drought
(b) Floods
(c) Bushfires
(d) Cyclones.
Answer: (b)
Pakistan faces a major financing challenge arising from natural catastrophes, with flooding causing an estimated annual economic impact of between three and four per cent of the federal budget,” adds the report. It estimates the annual economic impact of flooding at between $1.2bn and $1.8bn, or 0.5-0.8pc of GDP.
Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
(a) dispersal of weed species
(b) erosion of soil
(c) release of pollutants into waterways
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Floods can have negative environmental consequences, such as soil erosion, release of pollutants and excess sediments and nutrients into waterways and the ocean, dispersal of weed species, and negative impacts on fish and other aquatic life. Floods can also have positive environmental consequences, such as recharging groundwater systems, filling wetlands, moving useful nutrients around the landscape, and triggering breeding events (for example, of water birds).
Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood, based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Floodplain hydraulic models and flood maps are used to estimate which areas will be inundated based on river height information. Satellite and radar images, rain gauges and river gauging stations are used to estimate river heights.
Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Weather forecasts for a small region are more accurate than those for a large region.
(b) Weather forecasts are more accurate in Melbourne than in Darwin.
(c) Forecasts of temperature are more accurate than forecasts of rainfall.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (a)
The accuracy of weather forecasts varies depending on lead time, the size of the region of interest, the weather variable being forecast, and the latitude of the region. Generally, temperature forecasts are more accurate than rainfall forecasts; the mid-latitudes are easier to forecast than the tropics; and it is generally easier to forecast rainfall over a large area (for example, a large catchment) than local rainfall (for example, a reservoir).
Which of the following is true? Flood warnings:
(a) should not be released until the information is certain
(b) should indicate what the threat is, what
(c) action should be taken, by whom and when
(d) are best if they come from a single source
(e) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Flood warnings should provide information on what the threat is, what action should be taken, by whom and when. While it is desirable for flood warnings to be accurate, warnings are predictions about the future, so there is inevitably some uncertainty. Accuracy needs to be balanced with timeliness, to allow enough time for appropriate action. Warnings are most likely to reach different audiences and to be heeded if they come from multiple trusted sources.
Flood risk refers to:
(a) the chance of a flood occurring
(b) the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters if a flood occurs
(c) the vulnerability of people and properties that are exposed to floodwaters
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk includes both the chance (or probability) of a flood occurring, and the consequences if a flood occurs. The consequences of a flood are in turn affected by the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters for a flood of a particular size, and the vulnerability of those people and properties. For example, a river might burst its banks regularly, but if this flooding occurs in an isolated area where there are no people or infrastructure, then the risk is low. Similarly, a river might flood very rarely, but if many people and properties are located near this river and they live in dwellings that are vulnerable to water damage, then the flood risk will be greater.
Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
(a) zonings and building regulations for new developments
(b) dams, detention basins and levees
(c) flood awareness and education programs
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk in new developments can be reduced by restricting the location of development (zonings) and placing controls (regulations) on development. In existing developed areas, risk can be reduced by modifying flood behaviour (for example, through dams, detention basins, levees, waterway modifications), property modification measures (for example, land filling, flood proofing, house raising, removing developments), and response modification measures (for example, upgrading flood evacuation routes, flood warnings, flood evacuation planning, flood education programs).
The Probable Maximum Flood is:
(a) an estimation of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location
(b) the maximum flood experienced in the last 100 years
(c) the maximum flood experienced in the last 200 years
(d) the maximum flood experienced since flood records have existed.
Answer: (d)
The Probable Maximum Flood (PMF) is an estimate of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location, under the most severe meteorological and hydrological conditions as they are currently understood.
In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
(a) population growth
(b) urbanization
(c) climate change
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
In the future, climate change is likely to result in an increased chance of flash floods and coastal inundation. Australia’s growing population and urbanization are likely to place increased pressure on our waterways and to increase the chance of flooding in cities and the number of properties and people exposed to floodwaters.
In the future, which of the following is unlikely?
(a) There will be an increased chance of flash flooding and coastal inundation.
(b) Flood risk will increase due to population growth and urbanization.
(c) Improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies will reduce the impacts of floods.
(d) We will be able to eliminate the risk of flooding.
Answer: (d)
It is not possible to eliminate the risk of flooding. Indeed, it is likely that flood risk will increase in the future due to climate change, population growth and urbanization. However, we can better manage flood risk through improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies, as well as improved land use planning, floodplain management and integrated water management.
Higher level of floods and droughts are led by
(a) sand storms
(b) lower precipitation
(c) higher precipitation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
Approximately how fast do tsunami waves travel in the open ocean?
(a) 100 km/hour
(b) 1600 km/hour
(c) 200 km/hour
(d) 400 km/hour
(e) 800 km/hour
Answer: (e)
Tsunami waves travel between 500 and 950 km/hour.
What can cause a tsunami?
(a) Landslide
(b) Underwater earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) All of the above
Tsunamis are usually generated by undersea earthquakes at tectonic plate boundaries, but they can also be triggered by underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or even a giant meteor impact with the ocean.
Do all undersea earthquakes trigger a tsunami?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
An undersea earthquake creates a tsunami only if it is of sufficient force and there is a violent enough movement of the seafloor to displace a massive amount of water.
What does the word “tsunami” mean in Japanese?
(a) Tidal wave
(b) Harbor wave
(c) Killer wave
(d) Century wave
Answer: (b)
English word “tsunami” comes from the Japanese term for “harbor wave.” Tsunamis are not the same things as tidal waves and actually consist of a series of waves.
Witnesses have said that an approaching tsunami sounds like what?
(a) Firecrackers exploding
(b) A freight train
(c) Ice cracking
(d) Nothing—there is absolute silence
Answer: (b)
Many witnesses have described the sound of an approaching tsunami as being similar to a freight train’s.
What is the most active tsunami area?
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Caribbean Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Answer: (a)
Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common.
What is the deadliest tsunami ever recorded?
(a) The 1782 South China Sea tsunami
(b) The 1868 northern Chile tsunami
(c) The 1883 South Java Sea tsunami
(d) The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
Answer: (d)
In 2004 more than 200,000 people—the most ever recorded—died in an Indian Ocean tsunami that was triggered by an earthquake off Sumatra, Indonesia.
How fast can a tsunami travel?
(a) Up to 100 miles an hour (160 kilometers an hour)
(b) Up to 200 miles an hour (320 kilometers an hour)
(c) Up to 500 miles an hour (800 kilometers an hour
(d.) Up to 1,000 miles an hour (1,600 kilometers an hour)
Answer: (c)
Tsunamis race across the sea at up to 500 miles (805 kilometers) an hour—about as fast as a jet airplane. At that pace they can cross the entire expanse of the Pacific Ocean in less than a day.
Can you detect a tsunami in the open ocean?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
No. In the open ocean, the wave length of a tsunami is hundreds of miles long and only a few feet high. Boaters are safer out at sea during a tsunami than close to shore or tied up at port.
Where was the largest tsunami in history recorded?
(a) India
(b) Philippines
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Answer: (d)
In 1971 a wall of water 278 feet (84.7 meters) high surged past Ishigaki Island, Japan. It moved a 750-block of coral 1.5 miles (2.4 kilometers) closer to shore but did little other damage.
What is frequently a warning sign of an impending tsunami?
(a) Winds suddenly change direction
(b) The sky suddenly clears
(c) Seawater suddenly retreats from the shore
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
If the tsunami’s trough reaches shore first, it sucks the water seaward, exposing the seafloor suddenly. The wave’s crest usually hits shore about five minutes later. Recognizing this phenomenon—and getting to higher ground immediately—can save lives.
Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Vegetation
(d) Coal and minerals
Answer: (d)
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)
_____ of stratosphere provides protection to our life.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Argon
Answer: 3
The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are chiefly concentrated in the_______.
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Homosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer: (a)
Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
(a) Sandy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Loamy soil
Answer: (d)
Both power and manure are provided by _______.
(a) Thermal plants
(b) Nuclear plants
(c) Biogas plants
(d) Hydroelectric plants
Answer: (c)
In the atmosphere, the layer above the troposphere is _____.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (a)
______ is the major raw material for biogas.
(a) Plant leaves
(b) Cow dung
(c) Mud
(d) Grass
Answer: (b)
A biosphere reserve conserves and preserves_______.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Wild land
(c) Natural vegetation
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)
Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of_______.
(a) Copper
(b) Uranium
Answer: (b)
Sanctuaries are established to_______.
(a) Rear animals for milk
(b) Entrap animals
(c) Protect animals
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are brought to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. Unlike animal shelters, sanctuaries do not seek to place animals with individuals or groups, instead maintaining each animal until his or her natural death. At present there are 99 Wildlife Sanctuaries in Pakistan
The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.
(a) Extinction
(b) Clad
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Species diversity
Answer: (a)
In biology and ecology, extinction is the end of an organism or of a group of organisms (taxon), normally a species. The moment of extinction is generally considered to be the death of the last individual of the species, although the capacity to breed and recover may have been lost before this point.
Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Petrol
(c) Coal
(d) Uranium
Answer: (d)
Fossil fuels are sources of energy that have developed within the earth over millions of years. Because fossil fuels – oil, natural gas, and coal – take so long to form, they are considered nonrenewable
Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of_______.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Degradation
(c) Putrification
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
The biogas plant operating on the principle of a wet anaerobic fermentation process was selected for the determination of the composition of in-put raw material which is determinative for the final biogas quality. The biogas plant is designed as an accumulation through-flow device. The biogas production takes place during the wet fermentation process in the mesophile operation (average temperature 40°C). The produced biogas is used in a cogeneration unit. The biogas plant operates in automatic mode.
Floods can be prevented by_______.
(a) Afforestation
(b) Cutting the forests
(c) Tilling the land
(d) Removing the top soil
Answer: (a)
Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stand of trees in an area where there was no forest. Reforestation is the reestablishment of forest cover, either naturally (by natural seeding, coppice, or root suckers) or artificially (by direct seeding or planting).
Afforestation Trees are planted near to the river. This means greater interception of rainwater and lower river discharge. This is a relatively low cost option, which enhances the environmental quality of the drainage basin.
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General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-II) Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A
Aruba is one of the four constituent countries that form the Kingdom of the Netherlands, together with the Netherlands, Curaçao, and Sint Maarten whose citizens share a single nationality: Dutch citizen. Aruba together with Bonaire and Curaçao referred to as the ABC islands of the Leeward Antilles, the southern island chain of the Lesser Antilles.
1. Which sea surrounds Aruba?
a) Labrador
b) Caribbean
c) Irish
d) Beaufort
2. Which is the capital of Aruba?
a) San Nicolas
b) Oranjestad
c) Sabaneta
d) Caracas
Location map for the Aruba (Photo credit: Wikipedia)
3. Which is the official language of Aruba?
a) Spanish
b) English
c) French
d) Dutch
4. Which is the highest point in Aruba?
a) Mount Hooiberg
b) Longs Peak
c) Mount Jamanota
d) Granite Peak
Flag-map of Aruba (Photo credit: Wikipedia)
5. Which country claimed Aruba in 1499?
a) Spain
b) Portugal
c) Denmark
d) Belgium
6. When did Aruba become a Dutch colony?
a) 1502
b) 1624
c) 1636
d) 1718
7. When was Aruba’s flag first hoisted?
a) 18 March 1976
b) 20 May 1898
c) 29 September 2001
d) 16 December 1996
8. Which is the currency of Aruba?
a) Guilder
b) Florin
c) Franc
d) Euro
.jpg "Parliament of Aruba in Oranjestad.")
Parliament of Aruba in Oranjestad. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)
9. Who disappeared in Aruba on 30 May 2005?
a) Bruce Reynolds
b) Ronald Biggs
c) Beth Holloway
d) Natalee Holloway
10. What is the legislature of Aruba?
a) Lagting
b) Staten
c) Bundestag
d) Althing
1. Which sea surrounds Aruba?
b) Caribbean
Aruba in the Caribbean Sea. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)
2. Which is the capital of Aruba?
b) Oranjestad
3. Which is the official language of Aruba?
d) Dutch
4. Which is the highest point in Aruba?
c) Mount Jamanota
5. Which country claimed Aruba in 1499?
a) Spain
6. When did Aruba become a Dutch colony?
c) 1636
7. When was Aruba’s flag first hoisted?
a) 18 March 1976
8. Which is the currency of Aruba?
b) Florin
9. Who disappeared in Aruba on 30 May 2005?
d) Natalee Holloway
10. What is the legislature of Aruba?
b) Staten
1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.
2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins
3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.
5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.
6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.
7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.
8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes
9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.
10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.
11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.
13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.
14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.
16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.
17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.
18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)
19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)
22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)
23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)
24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)
25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)
26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)
27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.
28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)
29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.
30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)
31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)
32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)
33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)
34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.
35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)
36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)
37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)
38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)
39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)
41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)
42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)
43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)
44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)
45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)
46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)
47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)
48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.
49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)
50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)
General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I) Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AClick HERE for Q.No.1-50
Click HERE for Q.No.51-100
101) Which type of star is maintained by the pressure of an electron gas?
(a) Main Sequence Star
(b) White Dwarf
(c) Neutron Star
(d) Black Hole
Answer: (b)
White dwarfs are stars supported by pressure of degenerate electron gas. i.e. in their interiors thermal energy kT is much smaller then Fermi energy Ep. We shall derive the equations of structure of white dwarfs, sometimes called degenerate dwarfs, in the limiting case when their thermal pressure may be neglected, but the degenerate electron gas may be either non-relativistic. somewhat relativistic. or ultra-relativistic.
102) Which of the following first hypothesized that the Earth orbited the sun?
(a) Alexander the Great
(b) Copernicus
(c) Socrates
(d) Tycho Brahe
Answer: (b)
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance mathematician and astronomer who formulated a model of the universe that placed the Sun rather than the Earth at the center of the universe.
103) The LAST manned moon flight was made in what year?
(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1973 (d) 1974
Answer: (b)
The last manned landing Apollo 17 on the Moon to date, which took place on December 11, 1972, was made by Commander Eugene Cernan and lunar module pilot Harrison Schmitt who was also the first scientist on the Moon.
104) A planet is said to be at aphelion when it is:
(a) closest to the sun
(b) farthest from the sun
(c) at it’s highest point above the ecliptic
(d) at it’s lowest point below the ecliptic
Answer: (b)
105) The word Albedo refers to which of the following?
(a) The wobbling motion of a planet
(b) The amount of light a planet reflects
(c) The phase changes of a planet
(d) The brightness of a star
Answer: (b)
Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. The albedo effect when applied to the Earth is a measure of how much of the Sun’s energy is reflected back into space. Overall, the Earth’s albedo has a cooling effect. (The term ‘albedo’ is derived from the Latin for ‘whiteness’).
106) A pulsar is actually a:
(a) black hole
(b) white dwarf
(c) red giant
(d) neutron star
Answer: (d)
107) Astronomers use Cepheid’s principally as measures of what? Is it:
(a) size
(b) speed
(c) chemical composition
(d) distance
Answer: (d)
108) Where are most asteroids located? Is it between:
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Mars and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Mars and Jupiter
Answer: (d)
109) The precession of the Earth refers to the:
(a) change from night to day.
(b) Earth’s motion around the sun.
(c) change in orientation of the Earth’s axis.
(d) effect of the moon on the Earth’s orbit.
Answer: (c)
Precession is the change in orientation of the Earth’s rotational axis. The precession cycle takes about 19,000 – 23,000 years. Precession is caused by two factors: a wobble of the Earth’s axis and a turning around of the elliptical orbit of the Earth itself (Thomas, 2002). Obliquity affected the tilt of the Earth’s axis, precession affects the direction of the Earth’s axis. The change in the axis location changes the dates of perihelion (closest distance from sun) and aphelion (farthest distance from sun), and this increases the seasonal contrast in one hemisphere while decreasing it in the other hemisphere ( Kaufman, 2002). currently, the Earth is closest to the sun in the northern hemisphere winter, which makes the winters there less severe (Thomas, 2002). Another consequence of precession is a shift in the celestial poles. 5000 years ago the North Star was Thuban in the constellation Draco. Currently the North Star is Polaris in the constellation Ursa Minor.
110) The Magellanic cloud is a:
(a) nebula
(b) galaxy
(c) super nova remnant
(d) star cluster
Answer: (b)
111) The comet known as Halley’s Comet has an average period of:
(a) 56 years
(b) 66 years
(c) 76 years
(d) 86 years
Answer: (c)
Halley’s Comet orbits the Sun every 76.0 years and has an orbital eccentricity of 0.97. Comet Halley was visible in 1910 and again in 1986. Its next perihelion passage will be in early 2062.
112) Which one of the following planets has no moons?
(a) Mars
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
113) The rocks that enter the earth’s atmosphere and blaze a trail all the way to the ground and do not burn up completely are known as:
(a) meteorites
(b) meteors
(c) asteroids
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
A meteorite is a solid piece of debris from an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that originates in outer space and survives its passage through the Earth’s atmosphere and impact with the Earth’s surface
114) 95% of the Martian atmosphere is composed of what substance?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon monoxide
Answer: (a)
The atmosphere of Mars is about 100 times thinner than Earth’s, and it is 95 percent carbon dioxide.
115) What is the motion called when a planet seems to be moving westward in the sky?
(a) Retrograde
(b) Parallax
(c) Opcentric
(d) Reverse parallax
Answer: (a)
Retrograde motion, in astronomy, describes the orbit of a celestial body that runs counter to the direction of the spin of that body which it orbits. Apparent retrograde motion, in astronomy, is the apparent motion of planets as observed from a particular vantage point.
116) In what year did Galileo first use an optical telescope to study the moon?
(a) 1492 (b) 1611
(c) 1212 (d) 1743
Answer: (b)
117) Geocentric means around:
(a) Jupiter (b) the Earth
(c) the Moon (d) the Sun
Answer: (b)
118) The Pythagoreans appear to have been the first to have taught that the Earth is:
(a) at the center of the Universe.
(b) spherical in shape.
(c) orbits around the sun.
(d) flat with sharp edges.
Answer: (b)
119) A device which would not work on the Moon is:
(a) thermometer
(b) siphon
(c) spectrometer
(d) spring balance
Answer: (b)
Siphons will not work in the International Space Station where there is air but no gravity, but neither will they work on the Moon where there is gravity but no air
120) Of the following colors, which is bent least in passing through aprism?
(a) orange (b) violet
(c) green (d) red
Answer: (d)
121) In a reflecting telescope where in the tube is the objective mirror placed?
(a) the top to the tube
(b) the middle of the tube
(c) the bottom of the tube
(d) the side of the tube
Answer: (c)
122) What does it mean when someone says that comets have eccentric orbits? Does it mean
(a) they have open orbits
(b) they have nearly circular orbits
(c) their orbits are unpredictable
(d) the sun is far from the foci of their orbits
Answer: (d)
123) What causes the gas tail of a comet to always point away from the sun?
(a) solar wind
(b) air pressure
(c) centrifugal force
(d) gravity
Answer: (a)
124) What are Saturn’s rings composed of?
(a) completely connected solid masses
(b) billions of tiny solid particles
(c) mixtures of gases
(d) highly reflective cosmic clouds
Answer: (b)
125) Of the following, which is the only planet which CANNOT be seen with the unaided eye?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
The ice giant Neptune was the first planet located through mathematical predictions rather than through regular observations of the sky. Nearly 4.5 billion kilometers (2.8 billion miles) from the Sun, Neptune orbits the Sun once every 165 years. It is invisible to the naked eye because of its extreme distance from Earth. In 2011 Neptune completed its first orbit since its discovery in 1846.
126) Accretion is:
(a) the gradual accumulation of matter in one location usually due to gravity.
(b) the process of moon formation for planets.
(c) the process of matter accumulation due to centripetal force.
(d) the disintegration of matter.
Answer: (b)
127) A blue shift means a Doppler shift of light from a(an)
(a) receding star.
(b) blue star.
(c) approaching star.
(d) fixed star.
Answer: (c)
In the Doppler effect for visible light, the frequency is shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum when the light source (such as a star) is approaching.
128) The first and largest asteroid discovered was:
(a) Pallas.
(b) Juno.
(c) Ceres.
(d) Trojan.
Answer: (c)
129) The Crab Nebula consists of the remnants of a supernova which was observed by:
(a) Brahe in 1572.
(b) Kepler and Galileo in 1604.
(c) the Chinese in 1054 A.D.
(d) several ancient civilizations in 236 B.C.
Answer: (c)
The Crab Nebula, the result of a supernova noted by Earth-bound chroniclers in 1054 A.D., is filled with mysterious filaments that are are not only tremendously complex, but appear to have less mass than expelled in the original supernova and a higher speed than expected from a free explosion. The Crab Nebula spans about 10 light-years. In the nebula’s very center lies a pulsar: a neutron star as massive as the Sun but with only the size of a small town. The Crab Pulsar rotates about 30 times each second.
130) The atmosphere of Venus contains mostly
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water
Answer: (b)
The atmosphere of Venus is composed of about 96% carbon dioxide, with most … various other corrosive compounds, and the atmosphere contains little water.
131) On the celestial sphere, the annual path of the Sun is called
(a) the eclipse path.
(b) ecliptic.
(c) diurnal.
(d) solstice.
Answer: (b)
The ecliptic is an imaginary line on the sky that marks the annual path of the sun. It is the projection of Earth’s orbit onto the celestial sphere.
132) The angular distance between a planet and the Sun, as viewed from the Earth, is called
(a) angle of inclination.
(b) elongation.
(c) latitude.
(d) opposition.
Answer: (b)
Elongation is the angular distance between the sun, and another object such a moon or a planet as seen from earth. There are several special names for these angular distances. The different names of these angles depend on the status, inferior or superior, of the planet. The planets closer to the sun than the earth are called inferior planets. The planets farther away from the sun than earth are called superior planets.
Elongation is measured from earth as the angle between the sun and the planet. Sometimes the apparent relative position of a planet in relation to the sun is called the aspect, or configuration, of a planet.
133) Which of the following has the highest density?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Earth has the highest density of any planet in the Solar System, at 5.514 g/cm3. This is considered the standard by which other planet’s densities are measured. In addition, the combination of Earth’s size, mass and density also results in a surface gravity of 9.8 m/s². This is also used as a the standard (one g) when measuring the surface gravity of other planets.
134) Which of the following planets is NOT a terrestrial planet?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer: (b)
The term terrestrial planet is derived from the Latin “Terra” (i.e. Earth). Terrestrial planets are therefore those that are “Earth-like”, meaning they are similar in structure and composition to planet Earth. All those planets found within the Inner Solar System – Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars – are examples of terrestrial planets. Each are composed primarily of silicate rock and metal, which is differentiated between a dense, metallic core and a silicate mantle.
135) Why do we see lunar eclipses much more often than solar eclipses?
(a) Lunar eclipses occur more often than solar eclipses.
(b) Lunar eclipses last longer than solar eclipses.
(c) The lunar eclipse is visible to much more of the Earth than a solar eclipse.
(d) The moon is closer to the Earth than the sun.
Answer: (c)
Lunar and solar eclipses occur with about equal frequency. Lunar eclipses are more widely visible because Earth casts a much larger shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse than the Moon casts on Earth during a solar eclipse. As a result, we are more likely to see a lunar eclipse than a solar eclipse.
136) A star like object with a very large red shift is a
(a) Neutron star.
(b) Nova.
(c) Quasar.
(d) Supernova.
Answer: (c)
Quasars: In the 1930’s, Edwin Hubble discovered that all galaxies have a positive redshift. In other words, all galaxies were receding from the Milky Way.
137) The apparent magnitude of an object in the sky describes its
(a) Size
(b) Magnification
(c) Brightness
(d) Distance
Answer: (c)
138) The Van Allen belts are:
(a) caused by the refraction of sunlight like rainbows.
(b) charged particles trapped in the Earth’s magnetic field.
(c) caused by the reflection of polar snow.
(d) caused by precession.
Answer: (b)
The Van Allen belts are a collection of charged particles, gathered in place by Earth’s magnetic field. They can wax and wane in response to incoming energy from the sun, sometimes swelling up enough to expose satellites in low-Earth orbit to damaging radiation.
139) A coordinate system based on the ecliptic system is especially useful for the studies of
(a) Planets
(b) Stars
(c) The Milky Way
(d) Galaxies
Answer: (a)
140) The mean distance of the earth from the sun in astronomical units is:
(a) 3.7 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 101
Answer: (c)
In astronomy, an astronomical unit is defined as the average distance from the Sun to the Earth, or about 150 million kilometers (93 million miles). You can abbreviate astronomical unit as AU.
Since the distances in astronomy are so vast, astronomers use this measurement to bring the size of numbers down.
For example, Earth is 1 au from the Sun, and Mars is 1.523 AU. That’s much easier than saying that Mars is 227,939,000 km away from the Sun.
141) What process produces a star’s energy?
(a) hydrogen and oxygen combustion
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) neutron beta decay
(d) nuclear fission
Answer: (b)
The enormous luminous energy of the stars comes from nuclear fusion processes in their centers. Depending upon the age and mass of a star, the energy may come from proton-proton fusion, helium fusion, or the carbon cycle.
142) What is the most distant object in the sky that the human eye can see without optical instruments?
(a) The Horsehead Nebula
(b) The Andromeda Galaxy
(c) The Sagittarius Constellation
(d) The Aurora Borealis
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy (M31) is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way and is one of a few galaxies that can be seen unaided from the Earth. In approximately 4.5 billion years the Andromeda Galaxy and the Milky Way are expected to collide and the result will be a giant elliptical galaxy. Andromeda is accompanied by 14 dwarf galaxies, including M32, M110, and possibly M33 (The Triangulum Galaxy).
143) Which civilization developed and implemented the first solar calendar?
(a) Babylonian
(b) Greek
(c) Egyptian
(d) Aztec
Answer: (c)
A solar calendar is a calendar whose dates indicate the position of the earth on its revolution around the sun and is based on the seasonal year of approximately 365 1/4 days, the time it takes the Earth to revolve once around the Sun. The Egyptians appear to have been the first to develop a solar calendar, using as a fixed point the annual sunrise reappearance of the Dog Star — Sirius, or Sothis — in the eastern sky, which coincided with the annual flooding of the Nile River. They constructed a calendar of 365 days, consisting of 12 months of 30 days each, with 5 days added at the year’s end. The Egyptians’ failure to account for the extra fraction of a day, however, caused their calendar to drift gradually into error.
144) What is the HOTTEST region of the sun?
(a) The core
(b) The photosphere
(c) The chromospheres
(d) The corona
Answer: (d)
The corona is the outermost layer of the Sun, starting at about 1300 miles (2100 km) above the solar surface (the photosphere) The temperature in the corona is 500,000 K (900,000 degrees F, 500,000 degrees C) or more, up to a few million K. The corona cannot be seen with the naked eye except during a total solar eclipse, or with the use of a coronagraph. The corona does not have an upper limit.
A study published in 2012 in Nature Communications by researchers at Northumbria University found a possible mechanism that causes some stars to have a corona that is almost 200 times hotter than their photosphere (the star’s surface).
145) The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because:
(a) the moon is not rotating about its axis.
(b) the moon’s motion was fixed at its creation by the laws of inertia.
(c) tidal forces keep the moon’s rotation and orbiting motion in sync with each other.
(d) the moon’s magnetic poles keep aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field.
Answer: (b)
146) The resolving power of a telescope depends on the:
(a) focal ratio
(b) diameter of the objective
(c) magnification
(d) focal length
Answer: (b)
The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of the telescope’s light-gathering apparatus, or objective. In a refracting telescope, the objective lens is the first lens the light passes through. In a reflecting telescope, the objective is the telescope’s primary mirror. In a Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope, the objective is also the primary mirror. As the diameter of the telescope’s objective increases, the resolving power increases.
147) On a clear, dark, moonless night, approximately how many stars can be seen with the naked eye?
(a) 300 (b) 1,000
(c) 3,000 (d) 10,000
Answer: (c)
On any clear dark moonless night a person can see about 3000 stars of our galaxy without the aid of a telescope
148) The study of the origin and evolution of the universe is known as:
(a) Tomography
(b) cystoscopy
(c) cryology
(d) cosmology
Answer: (d)
Cosmology is the branch of astronomy involving the origin and evolution of the universe, from the Big Bang to today and on into the future. According to NASA, the definition of cosmology is “the scientific study of the large scale properties of the universe as a whole.”
149) According to Kepler’s Laws, all orbits of the planets are:
(a) ellipses
(b) parabolas
(c) hyperbolas
(d) square
Answer: (a)
Johannes Kepler, working with data painstakingly collected by Tycho Brahe without the aid of a telescope, developed three laws which described the motion of the planets across the sky.
1. The Law of Orbits: All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one focus.
2. The Law of Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
3. The Law of Periods: The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
Kepler’s laws were derived for orbits around the sun, but they apply to satellite orbits as well.
General Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III) Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AFollowing are the rules of precis writing.
1) Read the given passage carefully at least three times in order to be able to grasp what the writer has said.
2) Underline the important points to be included in your precis. A point is important if it is intimately connected with the main subject and if it is essential for a clear exposition of the theme.
3) Use your own language in the precis. While words and phrases from the original may be used in the precis. Whole sentences should never be lifted out of the original to be included in it.
4) The precis should be roughly one-third of the original passage. Always prepare a rough draft first and count the words. If you find that it is too long, shorten it by removing what seems essential and by condensing phraseology. If it turns out to be too short, read the original to see what more can be added to the precis.
5) Examples, illustrations, and comparisons should be left out of the precis. Figures of speech should be removed and the ideas expressed in clear, direct language.
6) Your own comments on the ideas of the precis are absolutely forbidden. Do not express any opinion, favorable or unfavorable, about the ideas in the original passage.
7) Be very careful about the language you write. Mistakes of Grammar and spelling are penalized as much in the precis as in other forms of composition.
8) See that your precis is a readable piece of English and that its ideas can be understood even by a person who has not gone through the original. This is very important.
9) Your precis should be connected whole. As such it should not be divided into paragraphs. ( THIS RULE DOES NOT APPLY TO VERY LONG ORIGINAL PIECES OF WRITING SUCH AS THOSE SET IN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS).
10) Don’t use the direct form of speech in precis. If the author has written in the first person pronoun using “I” and “my”, you should write in thethird person pronoun: “he” and “his”.
Rules of Precis Writing Read More »
English, GuidelinesClick HERE for Q. No.1-50.
51) Planets are always small compared with stars because otherwise ______.
( a) the rotation of the planets would cause them to disintegrate
(b) the great mass of the planets would cause them to be pulled into their parent star
(c) the great mass of the planets would prevent them from being held in orbit and they would escape
(d) the planets would be stars themselves
Answer: (d)
52) The least likely reason why planetary systems have not been directly observed around stars other than the sun is that __
(a) Planets are small
(b) Planets shine by reflected light
(c) Planetary systems are rare
(d) Other stars are far away
Answer: (c)
53) Which of the following is the correct ordering of the inner planets according to their proximity to the sun? (CSS 2012)
(a) Jupiter, Saturn , Uranus , Neptune
(b) Phobos, Deimes , Europe , Tias
(c) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
54) The term ‘Blue Shift’ is used to indicate: (CSS 2009)
(a) Doppler effect in which an object appears bluer when it is moving towards the observer or observer is moving towards the object.
(b) Turning a star from white to blue
(c) In future sun would become blue
(d) Black hole was blue at its start
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
55) Which planet of our solar system is called as Morning star? (CSS 2008)
Answer: Venus
56) What is the diameter of the earth?
Answer: 12 756.2 kilometers
57) The number of natural satellites orbiting around the Mars is: (CSS 2002/2003)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 14
Answer: (b)
Mars has two natural satellites, discovered by Asaph Hall in 1877. The innermost of these, Phobos, is about 7 mi (11 km) in diameter and orbits the planet with a period far less than Mars’s period of rotation (7 hr 39 min), causing it to rise in the west and set in the east. The outer satellite, Deimos, is about 4 mi (6 km) in diameter.
58) All stars are of the same color
(False)
59) Our galaxy milky way is shaped like a large thick concave lens with a large central bulge (CSS 2002)
(True)
60) The coldest planet of the solar system is: (CSS 2000)
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Neptune d) Pluto
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
In the past, the title for “most frigid body” went to Pluto, as it was the farthest then-designated planet from the Sun. However, due to the IAU’s decision in 2006 to reclassify Pluto as a “dwarf planet”, the title has since passed to Neptune. As the eight planet from our Sun, it is now the outermost planet in the Solar System, and hence the coldest.
61) Venus is the smallest planet of the solar system. (CSS 1999)
(False)
62) Black hole is a hypothetical region of space having a gravitational pull so great that no matter or radiation can escape from it. (CSS 1998)
63) Our solar system has about — satellites. (CSS 1996)
(a) 35
(b) 179
(c) 96
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn. The largest of these moons is Ganymede, which is one of the Galilean Moons.
64) ——- cannot be nominated for the Nobel Prize. (CSS 1996)
(a) Physicists
(b) Economists
(c) Astronomers
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
65) The largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter. (CSS 1995)
66) Planet Mars has (CSS 1995)
(a) 1 Moon
(b) 2 Moons
(c) 4 Moons
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The moons of Mars are Phobos and Deimos. Both moons were discovered in 1877 by Asaph Hall Asaph Hall was about to give up his frustrating search for a Martian moon one August night in 1877, but his wife Angelina urged him on. He discovered Deimos the next night, and Phobos six nights after that. Ninety-four years later, NASA’s Mariner 9 spacecraft got a much better look at the two moons from its orbit around Mars. The dominant feature on Phobos, it found, was a crater 10 km (6 miles) wide — nearly half the width of the moon itself. It was given Angelina’s maiden name: Stickney.
67) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS 2007)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
68) This is the measure of moisture in the air.
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Altitude
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
69) This is the greatest amount of water vapor the air could hold at a certain temperature
(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable humidity
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Absolute humidity is the measure of water vapor (moisture) in the air, regardless of temperature. It is expressed as grams of moisture per cubic meter of air (g/m3).
The maximum absolute humidity of warm air at 30°C/86°F is approximately 30g of water vapor – 30g/m3. The maximum absolute humidity of cold air at 0°C/32°F is approximately 5g of water vapor – 5g/m3.
70) This is how much actual water vapor is in the air at a certain temperature.
(a)Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Relative humidity also measures water vapor but RELATIVE to the temperature of the air. It is expressed as the amount of water vapor in the air as a percentage of the total amount that could be held at its current temperature.
71) Humidity is measured with a
(a) Barometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
72) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS-2009)
(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolas Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
73) The most splendid and the most magnificent constellation on the sky is: (CSS-2009)
(a) Orion
(b) Columbia
(c) Canis Major
(d) Taurus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
(Canis Major is a constellation in the southern sky. Its name means “the greater dog” in Latin.) Orion, which is located on the celestial equator, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world.
74) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS-2009)
(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
75) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS-2009)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Most asteroids lie in a vast ring between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. This main asteroid belt holds more than 200 asteroids larger than 60 miles (100 kilometers) in diameter. Scientists estimate the asteroid belt also contains more than 750,000 asteroids larger than three-fifths of a mile (1 km) in diameter and millions of smaller ones. Not everything in the main belt is an asteroid — for instance, comets have recently been discovered there, and Ceres, once thought of only as an asteroid, is now also considered a dwarf planet.
76) The largest circular storm in our solar system is on the surface of which of the following planets?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Earth
Answer: (a)
Jupiter boasts the largest storm in the Solar System . It is called the Great Red Spot and has been observed for hundreds of years that kind of storm is dwarfed by the Great Red Spot, a gigantic storm in Jupiter. There, gigantic means twice as wide as Earth. Today, scientists know the Great Red Spot is there and it’s been there for a while, but they still struggle to learn what causes its swirl of reddish hues.
77) The biggest asteroid known is:
(a) Vesta
(b) Icarus
(c) Ceres
(d) Eros
Answer: (c)
Ceres, a dwarf planet and the largest asteroid in the solar system yet known. Discovered in 1801 and first thought to be a planet and then an asteroid, we now call Ceres a dwarf planet. Gravitational forces from Jupiter billions of years ago prevented it from becoming a full-fledged planet. But Ceres has more in common with Earth and Mars than its rocky neighbors in the main asteroid belt. There may even be water ice buried under Ceres’ crust.
78) Rounded to the nearest day, the Mercurian year is equal to:
(a) 111 days
(b) 87.97 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 25 days
Answer: (b)
Mercurian Year: A year on Mercury takes 87.97 Earth days; it takes 87.97 Earth days for Mercury to orbit the sun once
79) One of the largest volcanoes in our solar system-if not the largest-is named Olympus Mons. This volcano is located on:
(a) Jupiter’s moon Callisto
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn’s moon Titan
(d) Mars
Answer: (d)
Olympus Mons is the largest volcano in the solar system. The massive Martian mountain towers high above the surrounding plains of the red planet, and may be biding its time until the next eruption. Olympus Mons rises three times higher than Earth’s highest mountain, Mount Everest, whose peak is 5.5 miles above sea level.
80) One Jupiter day is equal to which of the following?
(a) 30 hrs 40 min
(b) 9 hrs 50 min
(c) 3 hrs 20 min
(d) 52 hrs 10 min
Answer: (b)
81) The time interval between two successive occurrences of a specific type of alignment of a planet (or the moon) with the sun and the earth is referred to as:
(a) a conjunction
(b) an opposition
(c) a sidereal period
(d) a synodic period.
Answer: (d)
Synodic period , in astronomy, length of time during which a body in the solar system makes one orbit of the sun relative to the earth, i.e. The synodic period of the moon, which is called the lunar month, or lunation, is 291/2 days long; it is longer than the sidereal month.
82) Of the following four times, which one best represents the time it takes energy generated in the core of the sun to reach the surface of the sun and be radiated?
(a) Three minutes
(b) Thirty days
(c) One thousand years
(d) One million years
Answer: (d)
83) The sunspot cycle is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 26 years
(d) 49 years
Answer: (b)
The amount of magnetic flux that rises up to the Sun’s surface varies with time in a cycle called the solar cycle. This cycle lasts 11 years on average. This cycle is sometimes referred to as the sunspot cycle.
84) The Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram of stars DIRECTLY compares what TWO of the following properties of stars?
(a) size
(b) temperature
(c) luminosity
(d) Both b & c
Answer: (d)
One of the most useful and powerful plots in astrophysics is the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (hereafter called the H-R diagram). It originated in 1911 when the Danish astronomer, Ejnar Hertzsprung, plotted the absolute magnitude of stars against their color (hence effective temperature). Independently in 1913 the American astronomer Henry Norris Russell used spectral class against absolute magnitude. Their resultant plots showed that the relationship between temperature and luminosity of a star was not random but instead appeared to fall into distinct groups.
The majority of stars, including our Sun, are found along a region called the Main Sequence. Main Sequence stars vary widely in effective temperature but the hotter they are, the more luminous they are, hence the main sequence tends to follow a band going from the bottom right of the diagram to the top left. These stars are fusing hydrogen to helium in their cores. Stars spend the bulk of their existence as main sequence stars. Other major groups of stars found on the H-R diagram are the giants and supergiants; luminous stars that have evolved off the main sequence, and the white dwarfs. Whilst each of these types is discussed in detail in later pages we can use their positions on the H-R diagram to infer some of their properties.
85) The Andromeda Galaxy is which of the following types of galaxies?
(a) elliptical
(b) spiral
(c) barred-spiral
(d) irregular
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy also known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 780 kilo parsecs (2.5 million light-years) from Earth
86) About how many light years across is the Milky Way? Is it:
(a) 1,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 100,000
(d) 1,000,000
Answer: (c)
100 000 light years across
A light-year is precisely equal to a whole number of meters, namely 9460730472580800 m or approximately 9.46073 1015 m. That’s the distance traveled by light in a vacuum, at a speed of 299792458 m/s, during a “scientific year” of 31557600 s. All these numbers are exact… In particular, “Einstein’s Constant” is exactly c = 299792458 m/s, because of the latest definition of the meter, officially adopted in 1983.
87) Who was the first man to classify stars according to their brightness. Was it:
(a) Aristarchus
(b) Pythagoras
(c) Copernicus
(d) Hipparchus
Answer: (d)
The first person to classify stars by their apparent magnitude (brightness) was Hipparchus in about 130 BC. He divided the stars into classes based on how bright they appeared in the night sky. The brightest stars were classified as magnitude 1, those that were just visible to the naked eye as magnitude 6. In practice the intensity of a magnitude 1 star is 100 times that of a magnitude 6 star, so the 5 magnitude steps correspond to a multiple of 100. For a geometric series of magnitudes each magnitude must be a times the intensity of the previous one with a5 – 100. This means that going up one magnitude increases the intensity by a factor of a = 2.51. So magnitude 3 is 2.51 times as intense as magnitude 4 and so on.
88) For what reason was the Schmidt telescope specially built? Was it to serve as:
(a) a sky camera
(b) a radio telescope
(c) an optical telescope
(d) a solar telescope
Answer: (a)
A Schmidt camera, also referred to as the Schmidt telescope, is a catadioptric astrophotographic telescope designed to provide wide fields of view with limited aberrations. The design was invented by Bernhard Schmidt in 1930.
89) The greatest distance of a planet from the sun is called what? Is it the planet’s:
(a) aphelion
(b) perihelion
(c) helix
(d) eccentricity
Answer: (a)
The closest point to the Sun in a planet’s orbit is called perihelion. The furthest point is called aphelion
90) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars as compared to the atmospheric pressure of the earth? Is it:
(a) about the same as the earth’s
(b) about 100 times as great as the earth’s
(c) about 1/200th that of the earth’s
(d) half as much as that of the earth’s
Answer: (c)
The atmosphere and (probably) the interior of Mars differ substantially from that of the Earth. The atmosphere is much less dense and of different composition, and it is unlikely that the core is molten.
The atmosphere has a pressure at the surface that is only 1/200 that of Earth. The primary component of the atmosphere is carbon dioxide (95%), with the remainder mostly nitrogen. Seasonal heating drives strong winds that can reach 100 mph or more, stirring up large dust storms. Clouds form in the atmosphere, but liquid water cannot exist at the ambient pressure and temperature of the Martian surface: water goes directly between solid and vapor phases without becoming liquid.
91) A typical galaxy, such as our Milky Way galaxy, contains how many billion stars? Is it approximately:
(a) 10 billion
(b) 40 billion
(c) 400 billion
(d) 800 billion
Answer: (c)
According to astronomers, our Milky Way is an average-sized barred spiral galaxy measuring up to 120,000 light-years across. Our Sun is located about 27,000 light-years from the galactic core in the Orion arm. Astronomers estimate that the Milky Way contains up to 400 billion stars of various sizes and brightness.
According to astronomers, there are probably more than 170 billion galaxies in the observable Universe, stretching out into a region of space 13.8 billion light-years away from us in all directions.
92) A comet’s tail points in which direction?
(a) toward the sun
(b) toward the earth
(c) behind the comet in its orbit
(d) away from the sun
Answer: (d)
Comet tails are expansions of the coma. Comet tails point away from the Sun, regardless of the direction in which the comet is traveling. Comets have two tails because escaping gas and dust are influenced by the Sun in slightly different ways, and the tails point in slightly different directions.
93) Spectral line splitting due to the influence of magnetic fields is called:
(a) Boltzmann Effect
(b) Zeeman Effect
(c) Planck Effect
(d) Zanstra’s Effect
Answer: (b)
The Zeeman effect is the splitting of a spectral line by a magnetic field. That is, if an atomic spectral line of 400 nm was considered under normal conditions, in a strong magnetic field, because of the Zeeman effect, the spectral line would be split to yield a more energetic line and a less energetic line, in addition to the original line at 400 nm.
94) Which of the following is true for ORION? Orion is:
(a) the brightest star in the sky
(b) a constellation
(c) the name given to a NASA spacecraft
(d) an asteroid
Answer: (b)
95) Which of the following men wrote the book “On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres”?
(a) Kepler
(b) Euclid
(c) Copernicus
(d) Newton
Answer: (c)
De revolutionibus orbium coelestium (On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres) is the seminal work on the heliocentric theory of the Renaissance astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus (1473–1543).
96) The most distant planet in the solar system is (CSS 1995)
(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
New Dwarf Planet In Our Solar System May Be The Farthest One Yet. Object V774104 was discovered in late October, 2015, and is one of the most distant objects ever detected in the solar system. It appears to be about half the size of Pluto, but with an orbit two to three times larger than Pluto’s. (Nov 12, 2015)
97) The 2.7 Kelvin cosmic background radiation is concentrated in the:
(a) radio wavelengths
(b) infrared
(c) visible
(d) ultraviolet
Answer: (a)
98) If you were watching a star collapsing to form a black hole, the light would disappear because it:
(a) is strongly red shifted
(b) is strongly blue shifted
(c) its color suddenly becomes black
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)
99) The Magellanic Clouds are
(a) irregular galaxies
(b) spiral galaxies
(c) elliptical galaxies
(d) large clouds of gas and dust
Answer: (a)
The Magellanic Clouds are comprised of two irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud (SMC), which orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million years and each other once every 900 million years. Lying only about 200,000 light years away, they were the closest known galaxies to the Milky Way until recently, when the Sagittarius and Canis Major dwarf galaxies were discovered and found to be even closer.
100) According to Kepler’s Laws, the cube of the mean distance of a planet from the sun is proportional to the:
(a) area that is swept out
(b) cube of the period
(c) square of the period
(d) fourth power of the mean distance
Answer: (c)
Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-II) | General Science & Ability Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A
John Dryden was an influential English poet, literary critic, translator, and playwright who dominated the literary life of Restoration England to such a point that the period came to be known in literary circles as the Age of Dryden. Walter Scott called him “Glorious John”. He was made Poet Laureate in 1667. Source: Wikipedia
1. When was John Dryden born? (Dates according to Gregorian calendar)
a) 2 February 1641
b) 15 May 1636
c) 19 August 1631 (Correct)
d) 15 December 1628
2. Where was John Dryden born?
a) Aldwinkle (Correct)
b) Cardiff
c) Liverpool
d) Dorchester
3. Which school did John Dryden attend?
a) Shrewsbury School
b) Westminster School (Correct)
c) Harrow School
d) St. Paul’s School
4. Which poem did John Dryden write for the coronation of Charles II?
a) The Medall
b) The Hind and the Panther
c) Religio Laici
d) To His Sacred Majesty (Correct)
5. Which play did John Dryden write in 1665?
a) Secret Love
b) The Indian Emperour (Correct)
c) All for Love
d) The Conquest of Granada
6. When did John Dryden write Annus Mirabilis?
a) 1672
b) 1675
c) 1667 (Correct)
d) 1701
7. Which poem written by John Dryden regarding successor to Charles II angered Whigs?
a) Absalom and Achitophel (Correct)
b) Eleonara
c) Love Triumphant
d) Cleomenes
8. When was John Dryden poet laureate?
a) 1640-1648
b) 1701-1715
c) 1690-1700
d) 1668-1688 (Correct)
9. When did John Dryden die?
a) 26 January 1715
b) 12 May 1700 (Correct)
c) 11 July 1703
d) 12 November 1699
10. Where did John Dryden die?
a) Cambridge
b) London (Correct)
c) Oxford
d) Bristol
The 21st century has seen the most temperature records broken in recorded history. 2016 was the hottest year on record since 1880, according to NASA, with average temperatures measuring 1.78 degrees Fahrenheit (0.99 degrees Celsius) warmer than the mid-20th century mean Since the 1950s, every continent has warmed substantially. NASA’s latest visualizations, above, make that reality stark.
Multiple studies show that a massive 97 per cent of researchers believe global warming is happening But climate change is considered only the third most serious issue facing the world by the world’s population, behind international terrorism and poverty, hunger and the lack of drinking water
Arctic sea ice coverage has shrunk every decade since 1979 by 3.5 to 4.1 per cent. Glaciers have also been in retreat, including in major mountain ranges like the Alps, Himalayas and Rockies. In 2017, Arctic sea ice reached a record low for the third straight running
Levels are currently rising at their fastest rate for more than 2,000 years and the current rate of change is 3.4mm a year. In July, a massive crack in the Larson C ice shelf finally gave way sending a 5,800 square km section of ice into the ocean. The newly formed iceberg is nearly four times the size of London.
An average of 21.5 million people have been forcibly displaced since 2008 due to climate changed-related weather hazards, according to the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees.
In April 2017, it was revealed that two-thirds of Australia’s Great Barrier Reef has been severely damaged by coral bleaching. As a result, the coral loses its vibrant appearance, turns white and becomes weaker. Scientists say it will be hard for the damaged coral to recover.
The pH of ocean surface water has decreased by 0.1, which makes them 26 percent more acidic now than at the beginning of the Industrial Revolution. The waters are more acidic now that at any other point in the last 300,000 years.
The number of people exposed to flooding each year is at risk of tripling from 21 million to 54 million by 2030, This would result in the economic costs of flooding increasing from £65 billion to around £340 billion.
The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere reached the milestone of 400 parts per million for the first time in 2015 and surged again to new records in 2016
The Earth’s temperature will continue to rise so long as we continue to produce greenhouse gases. The estimates for how much temperature will increase by 2100 range from two degrees Celsius to as much as six degrees Celsius.
10 Important Climate Change Facts Read More »
Articles1) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)
(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
In terms of mass, volume, and surface area, Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System by a wide margin.
Size and Mass:
Jupiter’s mass, volume, surface area and mean circumference are 1.8981 x 1027 kg, 1.43128 x 1015 km3, 6.1419 x 1010 km2, and 4.39264 x 105 km respectively. To put that in perspective, Jupiter diameter is roughly 11 times that of Earth, and 2.5 the mass of all the other planets in the Solar System combined.
2) The universe is ———-. (CSS 1996)
(a) Stationary
(b) Expanding
(c) Contracting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In June 2016, NASA and ESA scientists reported that the universe was found to be expanding 5% to 9% faster than thought earlier, based on studies using the Hubble Space Telescope
3) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)
(a) . 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) . 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Moon has no atmosphere. None. That’s why astronauts have to wear their spacesuits when they get outside of their spacecraft on the surface of the Moon.
Atmosphere of the Moon might be electro statically levitated moon dust. These tiny particles are constantly leaping up and down off the surface of the Moon.
4) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?
(a) Edwin Hubble
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar
(d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: (a)
The Hubble Space Telescope was named after astronomer Edwin Powell Hubble (1889–1953), who made some of the most important discoveries in modern astronomy. Dr. Hubble determined that the farther a galaxy is from Earth, the faster it appears to move away. This notion of an “expanding” universe formed the basis of the Big Bang theory, which states that the universe began with an intense burst of energy at a single moment in time — and has been expanding ever since.
5) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer: (a)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn.
6) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?
(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer: (c)
Venus is the only planet that rotates clockwise. Venus (radius 3,760.4 miles) is similar to Earth (radius 3,963.19 miles) in size and structure but spins very slowly; a day on Venus is 243 Earth days long.
7) Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their sizes?
(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Jupiter (69,911 km / 43,441 miles) – 1,120% the size of Earth
Saturn (58,232 km / 36,184 miles) – 945% the size of Earth
Uranus (25,362 km / 15,759 miles) –400% the size of Earth
Neptune (24,622 km / 15,299 miles) – 388% the size of Earth
Earth (6,371 km / 3,959 miles)
8) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is
(a) 50 Million years
(b) 100 Million years
(c) 250 Million years
(d) 365 Million years
Answer: (c)
the Sun is dragging us around the galaxy at around 800,000km/h, taking around 250 million years to complete a single orbit.
That means our Solar System has made around 18 complete circuits since it was formed around 4.5 billion years ago.
9): The planet having the largest diameter is
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer: (b)
Jupiter is composed primarily of gaseous and liquid matter. It is the largest of the four giant planets in the Solar System and hence its largest planet. It has a diameter of 142,984 km (88,846 mi) at its equator
10) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun is (CSS 2010)
(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 98 days
(d) 60 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A year on Mercury is just 88 days long. One solar day (the time from noon to noon on the planet’s surface) on Mercury lasts the equivalent of 176 Earth days while the sidereal day (the time for 1 rotation in relation to a fixed point) lasts 59 Earth days. Mercury is nearly tidally locked to the Sun and over time this has slowed the rotation of the planet to almost match its orbit around the Sun. Mercury also has the highest orbital eccentricity of all the planets with its distance from the Sun ranging from 46 to 70 million km.
11) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)
(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. Jupiter has a mean radius of 43,440.7 miles (69,911 kilometers), about a tenth that of the sun. However, its rapid rotation — it spins once every 9.8 hours
12) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)
(a) 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Apollo 17 mission deployed an instrument called the Lunar Atmospheric Composition Experiment (LACE) on the moon’s surface. It detected small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.
13) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS 2009)
(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.
14) The sun produces most of its energy by (CSS 2012)
(a) Nuclear fusion which involves converting “H” to “He”
(b) Nuclear fission involving the burning of uranium & plutonium
(c) Nuclear fission involving the combining of uranium and palladium
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Sun, like all stars, is able to create energy because it is essentially a massive fusion reaction.
The core of the Sun is the region that extends from the center to about 20–25% of the solar radius. It is here, in the core, where energy is produced by hydrogen atoms (H) being converted into molecules of helium (He) This is possible thanks to the extreme pressure and temperature that exists within the core, which are estimated to be the equivalent of 250 billion atmospheres (25.33 trillion KPa) and 15.7 million kelvin, respectively.
15) Although the mass of a man on moon remains same as on the earth he will (CSS 2012)
(a) Be much happier there
(b) Weigh one sixth as much
(c) Weigh twice as much
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The Moon’s gravity is one sixth of the Earth’s gravity. A 120 kg astronaut weighs 1200 N on Earth. On the Moon they would weigh only 200 N. The astronaut’s mass is 120kg wherever they are.
16) The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon is: (CSS 2011)
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
17): The earth rotates 011 its axis from_
(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (d)
The Earth rotates from the west towards east. As viewed from North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.
18): Name two planets which revolve around their axis from east to west
(a) Earth and Venus
(b) Mars and Earth
(c) Venus and Uranus
(d) Mars and Uranus
Answer: (c)
Planets have no light of their own and all of them expect Venus and Uranus, rotate upon their axis from west to east.
19) Our sun is classified as (CSS 2012)
(a) A Blue giant
(b) A Yellow dwarf
(c) Supernova
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star, or G dwarf star, or more imprecisely, a yellow dwarf. Actually, the sun — like other G-type stars — is white, but appears yellow through Earth’s atmosphere. Stars generally get bigger as they grow older
20): Name the planet which revolve approximately 90 degree with its orbital plane_.
(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
Unlike any other planet, Uranus rotates on its side. That is, the rotation axis is tilted approximately 90 degrees relative to the planet’s orbital plane.
21): The hottest planet of our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Earth
Answer: (b)
Venus’s thick atmosphere made up mainly of CO2 makes it the hottest planet in the solar system. Mercury is colder because it’s atmosphere is thin.
22): Which of the following constellation contains Pole Star?
(a) Orion
(b) Ursa Major
(c) Ursa Minor
(d) Scorpio
Answer: (b)
23): All the stars appear to move from
(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (c)
Every day, the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west. Actually, these celestial objects aren’t moving that fast, but Earth is. It spins on its axis from west to east approximately every 24 hours.
Because we are standing on Earth’s surface, we move along with it. To us, it appears as if everything in the sky is moving from east to west.
24): The body burning like a star and coming towards the earth
(a) Comet
(b) Meteor
(c) Ceres
(d) Satellites
Answer: (b)
Fleeting trails of light are called meteors or shooting stars and they are created by small particles, some no bigger than a grain of rice, as they are completely burned up high in the atmosphere: about 100 km (or 60 miles) above the Earth. They are over literally in the blink of an eye. Space debris is collectively termed meteoroids, those larger fragments that reach the ground are called meteorites. Very big meteoroids are also known as asteroids. If one collides with Earth it would cause a major catastrophe.
25) Which of the following is not true?
(a) Planets rotate on their own axis.
(b) Planets do not emit light.
(c) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky
(d) Most of the planets have rings around them.
Answer: (d)
26) Which is the brightest planet?
(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth. Venus can often be seen within a few hours after sunset or before sunrise as the brightest object in the sky (other than the moon)
27) The stars in space are ___.
(a) Uniformly spread out.
(b) Distributed completely at random
(c) Chiefly in the Milky Way
(d) Mostly contained within widely separated galaxies
Answer: (d)
28) “Black holes” refer to: (CSS 2009)
(a) Hole occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing objects of high density
(d) Collapsing of low density
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
29) The Milky Way is _____.
( a) a gas cloud in the solar system
(b) a gas cloud in the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(c) the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(d) a nearby galaxy
Answer: (c)
30) Relative to the center of our galaxy, ____.
( a) its starts are stationary
(b) its stars move entirely at random
(c) its stars revolve
(d) Population I starts are stationary and Population II star revolve
Answer: (c)
31) Evidence of various kinds suggests that at the center of our galaxy is a ___.
( a) Quasar
(b) Pulsar
(c) Neutron star
(d) Black hole
Answer: (d)
A supermassive black hole (SMBH) is the largest type of black hole, in the order of hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses (M☉), and is found in the centre of almost all currently known massive galaxies. In the case of the Milky Way, the SMBH corresponds with the location of Sagittarius A*
32) A radio telescope is basically a (an) __.
(a) device for magnifying radio waves
(b) Telescope remotely controlled by radio
(c) Directional antenna connected to a sensitive radio receiver
(d) Optical telescope that uses electronic techniques to produce an image
Answer: (c)
Radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system that is used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. Because radio wavelengths are much longer than those of visible light, radio telescopes must be very large in order to attain the resolution of optical telescopes.
The first radio telescope, built in 1937 by Grote Reber of Wheaton
33) Sun is a: (CSS 2011)
(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Satellite
(d) Aurora
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
The Sun (or Sol), is the star at the centre of our solar system
The Sun is by far the largest object in the solar system. It contains more than 99.8% of the total mass of the Solar System (Jupiter contains most of the rest).
34) The age of the solar system is (CSS 2011)
(a) 4.5 billion years
(b) 5.5 billion years
(c) 6.5 billion years
(d) 7.5 billion years
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
By studying several things, mostly meteorites, and using radioactive dating techniques, specifically looking at daughter isotopes, scientists have determined that the Solar System is 4.6 billion years old. Well, give or take a few million years. That age can be extended to most of the objects and material in the Solar System.
35) An eclipse of the sun occurs when (CSS 2011)
(a) The moon is between the sun and the earth
(b) The sun is between the earth and the moon
(c) The earth is between the sun and the moon
(d) The earth casts its shadow on the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.
36) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS 2009)
(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolaus Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
Considered today to be the father of modern astronomy, Nicolaus Copernicus was born on February 19, 1473 in Torun, Poland.
37) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is: (CSS 2009)
(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 2 years
(d) 98 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days (87.969 to be exact), which means a single year is 88 Earth days – or the equivalent of about 0.241 Earth years. But here’s the thing. Because of Mercury’s slow rotation (once every 58.646 days) and its rapid orbital speed (47.362 km/s), one day on Mercury actually works out to 175.96 Earth days.
38) Primary cosmic rays are composed largely of very fast ___.
( a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (a)
Of primary cosmic rays, which originate outside of Earth’s atmosphere, about 99% are the nuclei (stripped of their electron shells) of well-known atoms, and about 1% are solitary electrons (similar to beta particles). Of the nuclei, about 90% are simple protons, i. e. hydrogen nuclei; 9% are alpha particles, identical to helium nuclei, and 1% are the nuclei of heavier elements, called HZE ions
39) Cosmic rays ____.
(a) Circulate freely through space
(b) are trapped in our galaxy by electric fields
(c) are trapped in our galaxy by magnetic fields
(d) are trapped in our galaxy by gravitational fields
Answer: (c)
40) The red shift in the spectral lines of light reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ______.
( a) are moving closer to one another
(b) are moving farther apart from one another
(c) are in rapid rotation
(d) Consist predominantly of red giant stars
Answer: (b)
41) According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, the universe _____.
( a) Must be expanding
(b) Must be contracting
(c) Must be either expanding or contracting
(d) May be neither expanding nor contracting
Answer: (c)
42) Supernova explosions have no connection with _______.
( a) The formation of heavy elements
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) Pulsars
(d) Quasars
Answer: (d)
43) Current ideas suggest that what is responsible for the observed properties of a quasar is a massive ____.
(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Spiral galaxy
(d) Star cluster
Answer: (b)
44) The age of the universe is probably in the neighborhood of ______.
( a) 15 million years
(b) 4 ½ billion years
(c) 15 billion years
(d) 30 billion years
Answer: (c)
45) The term big bang refers to ___.
( a) the origin of the universe
(b) the ultimate fate of the universe
(c) a supernova explosion
(d) the formation of a quasar
Answer: (a)
46) The elements heavier than hydrogen and helium of which the planets are composed probably came from the __.
( a) Sun
(b) Debris of supernova explosions that occurred before the solar system came into being
(c) Big bang
(d) Big crunch
Answer: (b)
47) Today the universe apparently contains ____.
( a) Only matter
(b) Only antimatter
(c) Equal amounts of matter and antimatter
(d) Slightly more matter than antimatter
Answer: (a)
48) Radiation from the early history of the universe was Doppler-shifted by the expansion of the universe until today it is in the form of _______.
( a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Infrared waves
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (d)
49) Present evidence suggests that most of the mass of the universe is in the form of ______.
( a) Dark matter
(b) Luminous matter
(c) Cosmic rays
(d) Black holes
Answer: (a)
50) It is likely that the planets, satellites, and other members of the solar system were formed ________.
(a) Together with the sun
(b) Later than the sun from material it ejected
(c) Later than the sun from material it captured from space
(d) Elsewhere and were captured by the sun
Answer: (a)
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