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October

A History of Civilian Plane Crashes in Pakistan

May 20, 1965:
A Pakistan International Airlines (PIA) Boeing 707 crashes on its inaugural flight while attempting to land at Cairo airport, killing 124 people.

August 6, 1970:
A PIA Fokker F27 turboprop aircraft crashes while attempting to take off from Islamabad in a thunderstorm, killing all 30 people on board.

December 8, 1972:
A PIA Fokker F27 crashes in Rawalpindi, near Islamabad.
All 26 people on board are killed.

November 26, 1979:
A PIA Boeing 707 bringing home Pakistani Hajj pilgrims from Saudi Arabia crashes shortly after take-off from Jeddah airport, killing 156 people.

October 23, 1986:
A PIA Fokker F27 crashes while coming in to land in the northwestern city of Peshawar, killing 13 of the 54 people on board.

August 17, 1988:
A US-made Hercules C-130 military aircraft crashes near Pakistan’s eastern city of Bahawalpur, killing military ruler General Mohammad Zia ul Haq and 30 others including Pakistani generals and the US ambassador.

August 25, 1989:
A PIA Fokker carrying 54 people disappears after leaving Gilgit in northern Pakistan. The wreckage is never found.

September 28, 1992:
A PIA Airbus A300 crashes into a cloud-covered hillside on approach to the Nepalese capital Kathmandu after the plane descended too early, killing 167 people.

February 19, 2003:
An air force Fokker F27 crashes in fog-shrouded mountains near the northwestern city of Kohat, killing air force chief Air Chief Marshal Mushaf Ali, his wife and 15 others.

February 24, 2003:
A chartered Cessna 402-B carrying Afghan Mines and Industries Minister Juma Mohammad Mohammadi, four Afghan officials, a Chinese mining executive and two Pakistani crew crashes into the Arabian Sea near the southern city of Karachi.

July 10, 2006:
A PIA Fokker F27 bound for Lahore crashes into a field and bursts into flames shortly after takeoff from the central city of Multan, killing 41 passengers and four crew.

July 28, 2010:
An Airblue Airbus 321 operated by the private airline Airblue flying from Karachi crashes into hills outside Islamabad while preparing to land, killing all 152 people on board.

November 5, 2010:
A twin-engine plane operated by Pakistani charter JS Air carrying staff from an Italian oil company crashes shortly after take-off in Karachi, killing all 21 people on board.

November 28, 2010:
At least 12 people are killed when a Russian-made Ilyushin IL-76 cargo plane operated by Georgian airline Sunway crashes in a fireball seconds after taking off from Karachi.

April 20, 2012:
A Bhoja Air Airbus 737 from Karachi comes down in bad weather near Islamabad, killing 121 passengers and 6 crew members.

May 8, 2015
A Pakistani military helicopter crashes, killing eight people including the Norwegian, Philippine and Indonesian envoys and the wives of Malaysian and Indonesian envoys, and setting a school building ablaze in a remote northern valley of near Gilgit.

December 7, 2016
A PIA ATR-42 aircraft crashes enroute from Chitral to Islamabad. The crash claims lives of all 48 passengers and crew, including singer-cum-evangelist Junaid Jamshed.

May 22, 2020
A PIA A-320 commercial airliner crashes near the Karachi Airport while completing a journey from Lahore. A total of 90 people including 8 crew members were on board the aircraft.

A History of Civilian Plane Crashes in Pakistan Read More »

General Knowledge, History, Uncategorized

Ellsworth Huntington Quiz

Ellsworth Huntington Quiz Questions

English: Picture taken in 1920 and publicly av...

Ellsworth Huntington. Picture taken in 1920 and publicly available online at Yale’s Manuscripts and Archives. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

1. When was Ellsworth Huntington born?
a) 5 February 1884
b) 2 April 1882
c) 16 September 1876
d) 14 December 1864

2. Where was Ellsworth Huntington born?
a) Galesburg
b) Chicago
c) Springfield
d) Ankara

3. At which college was Ellsworth Huntington instructor?
a) Christ Church College
b) Euphrates College
c) Trinity College
d) Bright College

4. Where did Ellsworth Huntington explore the canyons of the Euphrates?
a) Arabia
b) Egypt
c) Libya
d) Turkey

5. When did Ellsworth Huntington write The Pulse of Asia?
a) 1907
b) 1909
c) 1912
d) 1914

6. When did Ellsworth Huntington teach at Yale University?
a) 1898-1904
b) 1918-1924
c) 1907-1917
d) 1924-1936

7. When did Ellsworth Huntington publish Palestine and its Transformation?
a) 1948
b) 1936
c) 1925
d) 1911

8. Which book of Ellsworth Huntington was published in 1915?
a) The Human Habitat
b) Civilization and Climate
c) Mainsprings of Civilization
d) Clash of Civilizations

9. When did Ellsworth Huntington die?
a) 25 January 1959
b) 11 June 1958
c) 16 July 1953
d) 17 October 1947

10. Where did Ellsworth Huntington die?
a) Cairo
b) New Haven
c) Damascus
d) Beirut

Ellsworth Huntington Quiz Questions and Answers

Cover of "Civilization and Climate"

Cover of Civilization and Climate

1. When was Ellsworth Huntington born?
c) 16 September 1876

2. Where was Ellsworth Huntington born?
a) Galesburg

3. At which college was Ellsworth Huntington instructor?
b) Euphrates College

4. Where did Ellsworth Huntington explore the canyons of the Euphrates?
d) Turkey

5. When did Ellsworth Huntington write The Pulse of Asia?
a) 1907

6. When did Ellsworth Huntington teach at Yale University?
c) 1907-1917

7. When did Ellsworth Huntington publish Palestine and its Transformation?
d) 1911

8. Which book of Ellsworth Huntington was published in 1915?
b) Civilization and Climate

9. When did Ellsworth Huntington die?
d) 17 October 1947

10. Where did Ellsworth Huntington die?
b) New Haven

x (x)

Ellsworth Huntington Quiz Read More »

Uncategorized

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I)

1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.

2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins

3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.

5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.

6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.

7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.

8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes

9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.

10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.

11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.

13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.

14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.

16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.

17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.

18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)

19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)

22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)

23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)

24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)

25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)

26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)

27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.

28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)

29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.

30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)

32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)

33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)

34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.

35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)

36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)

37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)

38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)

39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)

40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)

41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)

42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)

43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)

44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)

46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)

47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)

48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.

49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)

50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I) Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Robert Southey Quiz

Robert Southey Quiz Questions

Click here for answers

1. When was Robert Southey born?
a) 8 February 1764
b) 5 April 1776
c) 12 August 1774
d) 4 December 1768

2. Where was Robert Southey born?
a) Lisbon
b) Liverpool
c) Ipswich
d) Bristol

3. Which school did Robert Southey attend?
a) St. George’s School
b) Westminster School
c) St. David’s School
d) Rugby School

4. Which college did Robert Southey attend?
a) Balliol College
b) Trinity College
c) King’s College
d) St. Andrew’s College

5. When did Robert Southey marry X?
a) 28 January 1799
b) 18 June 1798
c) 12 September 1796
d) 14 November 1795

6. When was Joan of Arc published?
a) 1792
b) 1796
c) 1788
d) 1786

7. What did Robert Southey and Samuel Coleridge wanted to establish?
a) Pantisocracy
b) Aristocracy
c) Plutocracy
d) Gerontocracy

8. Which Robert Southey book was published in 1814?
a) After Blenheim
b) Letters from Spain
c) Roderick the Last of the Goths
d) Madoc

9. When did Robert Southey die?
a) 21 March 1843
b) 19 May 1844
c) 23 July 1846
d) 15 October 1848

10. Where did Robert Southey die?
a) Glamorgan
b) Keswick
c) Edinburgh
d) Glasgow

Robert Southey Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Robert Southey born?
c) 12 August 1774

2. Where was Robert Southey born?
d) Bristol

3. Which school did Robert Southey attend?
b) Westminster School

4. Which college did Robert Southey attend?
a) Balliol College

5. When did Robert Southey marry X?
d) 14 November 1795

6. When was Joan of Arc published?
b) 1796

7. What did Robert Southey and Samuel Coleridge wanted to establish?
a) Pantisocracy

8. Which Robert Southey book was published in 1814?
c) Roderick the Last of the Goths

9. When did Robert Southey die?
a) 21 March 1843

10. Where did Robert Southey die?
b) Keswick

Robert Southey Quiz Read More »

General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-II) | General Science & Ability

Click HERE for Q. No.1-50.

51) Planets are always small compared with stars because otherwise ______.
( a) the rotation of the planets would cause them to disintegrate
(b) the great mass of the planets would cause them to be pulled into their parent star
(c) the great mass of the planets would prevent them from being held in orbit and they would escape
(d) the planets would be stars themselves
Answer: (d)

52) The least likely reason why planetary systems have not been directly observed around stars other than the sun is that __
(a) Planets are small
(b) Planets shine by reflected light
(c) Planetary systems are rare
(d) Other stars are far away
Answer: (c)

53) Which of the following is the correct ordering of the inner planets according to their proximity to the sun? (CSS 2012)
(a) Jupiter, Saturn , Uranus , Neptune
(b) Phobos, Deimes , Europe , Tias
(c) Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

54) The term ‘Blue Shift’ is used to indicate: (CSS 2009)
(a) Doppler effect in which an object appears bluer when it is moving towards the observer or observer is moving towards the object.

(b) Turning a star from white to blue
(c) In future sun would become blue
(d) Black hole was blue at its start
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

55) Which planet of our solar system is called as Morning star? (CSS 2008)
Answer: Venus

56) What is the diameter of the earth?
Answer: 12 756.2 kilometers

57) The number of natural satellites orbiting around the Mars is: (CSS 2002/2003)
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) 14
Answer: (b)
Mars has two natural satellites, discovered by Asaph Hall in 1877. The innermost of these, Phobos, is about 7 mi (11 km) in diameter and orbits the planet with a period far less than Mars’s period of rotation (7 hr 39 min), causing it to rise in the west and set in the east. The outer satellite, Deimos, is about 4 mi (6 km) in diameter.

58) All stars are of the same color
(False)

59) Our galaxy milky way is shaped like a large thick concave lens with a large central bulge (CSS 2002)
(True)

60) The coldest planet of the solar system is: (CSS 2000)
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Neptune d) Pluto
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
In the past, the title for “most frigid body” went to Pluto, as it was the farthest then-designated planet from the Sun. However, due to the IAU’s decision in 2006 to reclassify Pluto as a “dwarf planet”, the title has since passed to Neptune. As the eight planet from our Sun, it is now the outermost planet in the Solar System, and hence the coldest.

61) Venus is the smallest planet of the solar system. (CSS 1999)
(False)

62) Black hole is a hypothetical region of space having a gravitational pull so great that no matter or radiation can escape from it. (CSS 1998)

63) Our solar system has about — satellites. (CSS 1996)
(a) 35
(b) 179
(c) 96
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn. The largest of these moons is Ganymede, which is one of the Galilean Moons.

64) ——- cannot be nominated for the Nobel Prize. (CSS 1996)
(a) Physicists
(b) Economists
(c) Astronomers
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

65) The largest planet of the solar system is Jupiter. (CSS 1995)

66) Planet Mars has (CSS 1995)
(a) 1 Moon
(b) 2 Moons
(c) 4 Moons
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The moons of Mars are Phobos and Deimos. Both moons were discovered in 1877 by Asaph Hall Asaph Hall was about to give up his frustrating search for a Martian moon one August night in 1877, but his wife Angelina urged him on. He discovered Deimos the next night, and Phobos six nights after that. Ninety-four years later, NASA’s Mariner 9 spacecraft got a much better look at the two moons from its orbit around Mars. The dominant feature on Phobos, it found, was a crater 10 km (6 miles) wide — nearly half the width of the moon itself. It was given Angelina’s maiden name: Stickney.

67) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS 2007)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

68) This is the measure of moisture in the air.
(a) Temperature
(b) Humidity
(c) Altitude
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

69) This is the greatest amount of water vapor the air could hold at a certain temperature
(a) Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable humidity
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Absolute humidity is the measure of water vapor (moisture) in the air, regardless of temperature. It is expressed as grams of moisture per cubic meter of air (g/m3).
The maximum absolute humidity of warm air at 30°C/86°F is approximately 30g of water vapor – 30g/m3. The maximum absolute humidity of cold air at 0°C/32°F is approximately 5g of water vapor – 5g/m3.

70) This is how much actual water vapor is in the air at a certain temperature.
(a)Absolute humidity
(b) Relative humidity
(c) Variable
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
Relative humidity also measures water vapor but RELATIVE to the temperature of the air. It is expressed as the amount of water vapor in the air as a percentage of the total amount that could be held at its current temperature.

71) Humidity is measured with a
(a) Barometer
(b) Thermometer
(c) Hygrometer
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

72) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS-2009)
(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolas Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)

73) The most splendid and the most magnificent constellation on the sky is: (CSS-2009)
(a) Orion
(b) Columbia
(c) Canis Major
(d) Taurus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
(Canis Major is a constellation in the southern sky. Its name means “the greater dog” in Latin.) Orion, which is located on the celestial equator, is one of the most prominent and recognizable constellations in the sky and can be seen throughout the world.

74) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS-2009)
(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)

75) Where do most of Asteroids lie? (CSS-2009)
(a) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(b) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Mars and Venus
(c) In asteroid belt between the orbits of Jupiter and Venus
(d) Everywhere in the sky
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Most asteroids lie in a vast ring between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. This main asteroid belt holds more than 200 asteroids larger than 60 miles (100 kilometers) in diameter. Scientists estimate the asteroid belt also contains more than 750,000 asteroids larger than three-fifths of a mile (1 km) in diameter and millions of smaller ones. Not everything in the main belt is an asteroid — for instance, comets have recently been discovered there, and Ceres, once thought of only as an asteroid, is now also considered a dwarf planet.

76) The largest circular storm in our solar system is on the surface of which of the following planets?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Earth
Answer: (a)
Jupiter boasts the largest storm in the Solar System . It is called the Great Red Spot and has been observed for hundreds of years that kind of storm is dwarfed by the Great Red Spot, a gigantic storm in Jupiter. There, gigantic means twice as wide as Earth. Today, scientists know the Great Red Spot is there and it’s been there for a while, but they still struggle to learn what causes its swirl of reddish hues.

77) The biggest asteroid known is:
(a) Vesta
(b) Icarus
(c) Ceres
(d) Eros
Answer: (c)
Ceres, a dwarf planet and the largest asteroid in the solar system yet known. Discovered in 1801 and first thought to be a planet and then an asteroid, we now call Ceres a dwarf planet. Gravitational forces from Jupiter billions of years ago prevented it from becoming a full-fledged planet. But Ceres has more in common with Earth and Mars than its rocky neighbors in the main asteroid belt. There may even be water ice buried under Ceres’ crust.

78) Rounded to the nearest day, the Mercurian year is equal to:
(a) 111 days
(b) 87.97 days
(c) 50 days
(d) 25 days
Answer: (b)
Mercurian Year: A year on Mercury takes 87.97 Earth days; it takes 87.97 Earth days for Mercury to orbit the sun once

79) One of the largest volcanoes in our solar system-if not the largest-is named Olympus Mons. This volcano is located on:
(a) Jupiter’s moon Callisto
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn’s moon Titan
(d) Mars
Answer: (d)
Olympus Mons is the largest volcano in the solar system. The massive Martian mountain towers high above the surrounding plains of the red planet, and may be biding its time until the next eruption. Olympus Mons rises three times higher than Earth’s highest mountain, Mount Everest, whose peak is 5.5 miles above sea level.

80) One Jupiter day is equal to which of the following?
(a) 30 hrs 40 min
(b) 9 hrs 50 min
(c) 3 hrs 20 min
(d) 52 hrs 10 min
Answer: (b)

81) The time interval between two successive occurrences of a specific type of alignment of a planet (or the moon) with the sun and the earth is referred to as:
(a) a conjunction
(b) an opposition
(c) a sidereal period
(d) a synodic period.
Answer: (d)
Synodic period , in astronomy, length of time during which a body in the solar system makes one orbit of the sun relative to the earth, i.e. The synodic period of the moon, which is called the lunar month, or lunation, is 291/2 days long; it is longer than the sidereal month.

82) Of the following four times, which one best represents the time it takes energy generated in the core of the sun to reach the surface of the sun and be radiated?
(a) Three minutes
(b) Thirty days
(c) One thousand years
(d) One million years
Answer: (d)

83) The sunspot cycle is:
(a) 3 years
(b) 11 years
(c) 26 years
(d) 49 years
Answer: (b)

The amount of magnetic flux that rises up to the Sun’s surface varies with time in a cycle called the solar cycle. This cycle lasts 11 years on average. This cycle is sometimes referred to as the sunspot cycle.

84) The Hertzsprung-Russel Diagram of stars DIRECTLY compares what TWO of the following properties of stars?
(a) size
(b) temperature
(c) luminosity
(d) Both b & c
Answer: (d)
One of the most useful and powerful plots in astrophysics is the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (hereafter called the H-R diagram). It originated in 1911 when the Danish astronomer, Ejnar Hertzsprung, plotted the absolute magnitude of stars against their color (hence effective temperature). Independently in 1913 the American astronomer Henry Norris Russell used spectral class against absolute magnitude. Their resultant plots showed that the relationship between temperature and luminosity of a star was not random but instead appeared to fall into distinct groups.

The majority of stars, including our Sun, are found along a region called the Main Sequence. Main Sequence stars vary widely in effective temperature but the hotter they are, the more luminous they are, hence the main sequence tends to follow a band going from the bottom right of the diagram to the top left. These stars are fusing hydrogen to helium in their cores. Stars spend the bulk of their existence as main sequence stars. Other major groups of stars found on the H-R diagram are the giants and supergiants; luminous stars that have evolved off the main sequence, and the white dwarfs. Whilst each of these types is discussed in detail in later pages we can use their positions on the H-R diagram to infer some of their properties.

85) The Andromeda Galaxy is which of the following types of galaxies?
(a) elliptical
(b) spiral
(c) barred-spiral
(d) irregular
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy also known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, is a spiral galaxy approximately 780 kilo parsecs (2.5 million light-years) from Earth

86) About how many light years across is the Milky Way? Is it:
(a) 1,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 100,000
(d) 1,000,000
Answer: (c)
100 000 light years across
A light-year is precisely equal to a whole number of meters, namely 9460730472580800 m or approximately 9.46073 1015 m. That’s the distance traveled by light in a vacuum, at a speed of 299792458 m/s, during a “scientific year” of 31557600 s. All these numbers are exact… In particular, “Einstein’s Constant” is exactly c = 299792458 m/s, because of the latest definition of the meter, officially adopted in 1983.

87) Who was the first man to classify stars according to their brightness. Was it:
(a) Aristarchus
(b) Pythagoras
(c) Copernicus
(d) Hipparchus
Answer: (d)
The first person to classify stars by their apparent magnitude (brightness) was Hipparchus in about 130 BC. He divided the stars into classes based on how bright they appeared in the night sky. The brightest stars were classified as magnitude 1, those that were just visible to the naked eye as magnitude 6. In practice the intensity of a magnitude 1 star is 100 times that of a magnitude 6 star, so the 5 magnitude steps correspond to a multiple of 100. For a geometric series of magnitudes each magnitude must be a times the intensity of the previous one with a5 – 100. This means that going up one magnitude increases the intensity by a factor of a = 2.51. So magnitude 3 is 2.51 times as intense as magnitude 4 and so on.

88) For what reason was the Schmidt telescope specially built? Was it to serve as:
(a) a sky camera
(b) a radio telescope
(c) an optical telescope
(d) a solar telescope
Answer: (a)

A Schmidt camera, also referred to as the Schmidt telescope, is a catadioptric astrophotographic telescope designed to provide wide fields of view with limited aberrations. The design was invented by Bernhard Schmidt in 1930.

89) The greatest distance of a planet from the sun is called what? Is it the planet’s:
(a) aphelion
(b) perihelion
(c) helix
(d) eccentricity
Answer: (a)
The closest point to the Sun in a planet’s orbit is called perihelion. The furthest point is called aphelion

90) How is the atmospheric pressure of Mars as compared to the atmospheric pressure of the earth? Is it:
(a) about the same as the earth’s
(b) about 100 times as great as the earth’s
(c) about 1/200th that of the earth’s
(d) half as much as that of the earth’s
Answer: (c)
The atmosphere and (probably) the interior of Mars differ substantially from that of the Earth. The atmosphere is much less dense and of different composition, and it is unlikely that the core is molten.
The atmosphere has a pressure at the surface that is only 1/200 that of Earth. The primary component of the atmosphere is carbon dioxide (95%), with the remainder mostly nitrogen. Seasonal heating drives strong winds that can reach 100 mph or more, stirring up large dust storms. Clouds form in the atmosphere, but liquid water cannot exist at the ambient pressure and temperature of the Martian surface: water goes directly between solid and vapor phases without becoming liquid.

91) A typical galaxy, such as our Milky Way galaxy, contains how many billion stars? Is it approximately:
(a) 10 billion
(b) 40 billion
(c) 400 billion
(d) 800 billion
Answer: (c)
According to astronomers, our Milky Way is an average-sized barred spiral galaxy measuring up to 120,000 light-years across. Our Sun is located about 27,000 light-years from the galactic core in the Orion arm. Astronomers estimate that the Milky Way contains up to 400 billion stars of various sizes and brightness.
According to astronomers, there are probably more than 170 billion galaxies in the observable Universe, stretching out into a region of space 13.8 billion light-years away from us in all directions.

92) A comet’s tail points in which direction?
(a) toward the sun
(b) toward the earth
(c) behind the comet in its orbit
(d) away from the sun
Answer: (d)
Comet tails are expansions of the coma. Comet tails point away from the Sun, regardless of the direction in which the comet is traveling. Comets have two tails because escaping gas and dust are influenced by the Sun in slightly different ways, and the tails point in slightly different directions.

93) Spectral line splitting due to the influence of magnetic fields is called:
(a) Boltzmann Effect
(b) Zeeman Effect
(c) Planck Effect
(d) Zanstra’s Effect
Answer: (b)
The Zeeman effect is the splitting of a spectral line by a magnetic field. That is, if an atomic spectral line of 400 nm was considered under normal conditions, in a strong magnetic field, because of the Zeeman effect, the spectral line would be split to yield a more energetic line and a less energetic line, in addition to the original line at 400 nm.

94) Which of the following is true for ORION? Orion is:
(a) the brightest star in the sky
(b) a constellation
(c) the name given to a NASA spacecraft
(d) an asteroid
Answer: (b)

95) Which of the following men wrote the book “On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres”?
(a) Kepler
(b) Euclid
(c) Copernicus
(d) Newton
Answer: (c)

De revolutionibus orbium coelestium (On the Revolutions of the Heavenly Spheres) is the seminal work on the heliocentric theory of the Renaissance astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus (1473–1543).

96) The most distant planet in the solar system is (CSS 1995)
(a) Mars
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
New Dwarf Planet In Our Solar System May Be The Farthest One Yet. Object V774104 was discovered in late October, 2015, and is one of the most distant objects ever detected in the solar system. It appears to be about half the size of Pluto, but with an orbit two to three times larger than Pluto’s. (Nov 12, 2015)

97) The 2.7 Kelvin cosmic background radiation is concentrated in the:
(a) radio wavelengths
(b) infrared
(c) visible
(d) ultraviolet
Answer: (a)

98) If you were watching a star collapsing to form a black hole, the light would disappear because it:
(a) is strongly red shifted
(b) is strongly blue shifted
(c) its color suddenly becomes black
(d) none of the above
Answer: (a)

99) The Magellanic Clouds are
(a) irregular galaxies
(b) spiral galaxies
(c) elliptical galaxies
(d) large clouds of gas and dust
Answer: (a)
The Magellanic Clouds are comprised of two irregular galaxies, the Large Magellanic Cloud (LMC) and the Small Magellanic Cloud (SMC), which orbit the Milky Way once every 1,500 million years and each other once every 900 million years. Lying only about 200,000 light years away, they were the closest known galaxies to the Milky Way until recently, when the Sagittarius and Canis Major dwarf galaxies were discovered and found to be even closer.

100) According to Kepler’s Laws, the cube of the mean distance of a planet from the sun is proportional to the:
(a) area that is swept out
(b) cube of the period
(c) square of the period
(d) fourth power of the mean distance
Answer: (c)

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Questions

Click here for answers

1. When was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) 4 February 1924
b) 2 April 1918
c) 7 September 1914
d) 28 December 1912

2. Where was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) Mount Pleasant
b) Silver Spring
c) Dartmouth
d) Charlestown

3. Which college did James Alfred Van Allen attend?
a) William and Mary College
b) Iowa Wesleyan College
c) St. Dominic’s College
d) Sacred Heart College

4. What was Aerobee which James Alfred Van Allen helped develop?
a) Missile
b) Satellite
c) Rocket
d) Destroyer

5. When was James Alfred Van Allen professor of physics at the University of Iowa?
a) 1951-1985
b) 1942-1946
c) 1946-1950
d) 1988-1998

6. What was the year 1957-1958?
a) Second International Polar Year
b) International Geophysical Year
c) International Year of Youth
d) International Year of Telecommunications

7. When was Explorer launched?
a) 26 July 1969
b) 12 June 1964
c) 31 January 1958
d) 12 November 1952

8. When did James Alfred Van Allen discover Van Allen radiation belts?
a) 1948
b) 1972
c) 1962
d) 1958

9. When did James Alfred Van Allen die?
a) 26 March 2008
b) 9 August 2006
c) 28 May 2004
d) 14 October 2012

10. Where did James Alfred Van Allen die?
a) New York
b) San Francisco
c) Los Angeles
d) Iowa City

James Alfred Van Allen Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was James Alfred Van Allen born?
c) 7 September 1914

2. Where was James Alfred Van Allen born?
a) Mount Pleasant

3. Which college did James Alfred Van Allen attend?
b) Iowa Wesleyan College

4. What was Aerobee which James Alfred Van Allen helped develop?
c) Rocket

5. When was James Alfred Van Allen professor of physics at the University of Iowa?
a) 1951-1985

6. What was the year 1957-1958?
b) International Geophysical Year

7. When was Explorer launched?
c) 31 January 1958

8. When did James Alfred Van Allen discover Van Allen radiation belts?
d) 1958

9. When did James Alfred Van Allen die?
b) 9 August 2006

10. Where did James Alfred Van Allen die?
d) Iowa City

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Daily Dawn Vocabulary with Urdu Meaning | 6 October 2018

Daily Dawn Vocabulary with Urdu Meaning
October 06, 2018

 

 Sinister اشوب، بدشگونی، منحوس

giving the impression that something harmful or evil is happening or will happen
Synonyms: menacing, threatening, ominous, forbidding, baleful, frightening, eerie, alarming,
Antonyms: auspicious, benign, bright, encouraging, favorable,

Rhetoric فن خطابت، بیان بازی

the art of effective or persuasive speaking or writing
Synonyms: oratory, eloquence, power of speech, command of language, expression
Antonyms: inarticulacy, conciseness

Articulate واضح، جوڑنا،

having or showing the ability to speak fluently and coherently
Synonyms: eloquent, fluent, communicative, effective, persuasive, coherent, lucid, vivid,
Antonyms: inarticulate, hesitant, unintelligible

Coercive تشدد آمیز، دباﺅ، سخت

relating to or using force or threats
Synonyms: bullying, violent, forced, forceful, intimidating, Antonyms:

Snare پھندا، پھندے سے پکڑنا، جال

a trap for catching birds or mammals typically one having a noose of wire or cord
Synonyms: trap, gin, net, noose; rarespringe
Antonyms: disentangle, untangle

Perpetual مستقل طور پر، دائمی، مسلسل ہمیشہ

never ending or changing
Synonyms: everlasting, never-ending, eternal, permanent, unending, endless
Antonyms: transitory, temporary, intermittent

Perplexed مضطرب، پریشان یا حیران، گھبرایا ہوا ہونا

completely baffled; very puzzled
Synonyms: puzzle, baffle, mystify, bemuse, bewilder, confound, confuse, nonplus, disconcert,
Antonyms: undaunted, unfazed, composed, untroubled

Disruptive تفرقہ ڈالنے والا، منتشر کرنا

causing or tending to cause disruption
Synonyms: troublemaking, troublesome, unruly, rowdy, disorderly, undisciplined, attention-seeking,
Antonyms: well behaved, manageable

Sovereign حاکمیت، اقتدار اعلیٰ، مختار

a supreme ruler, especially a monarch
Synonyms: ruler, monarch, supreme ruler, Crown, crowned head, head of state,
Antonyms: inconsequential, insignificant, minor, negligible

Congested گنجان، بھیڑ بھاڑ

(of a road or place) so crowded with traffic or people as to hinder or prevent freedom of movement
Synonyms: crowded, overcrowded, full, overfull, overflowing, full to overflowing/bursting
Antonyms: clear

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English, English Grammar

George Herbert Hitchings Quiz

George Herbert Hitchings Quiz Questions

1. When did George Herbert Hitchings get Nobel Prize for Medicine?
a) 1978
b) 1962
c) 1988
d) 1984

2. When was George Herbert Hitchings born?
a) 9 February 1907
b) 18 April 1905
c) 14 August 1918
d) 7 October 1910

3. Where was George Herbert Hitchings born?
a) Houston
b) Atlanta
c) Salt Lake City
d) Hoquiam

4. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings get master’s degree?
a) Washington
b) Princeton
c) Yale
d) California

5. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings teach?
a) Montreal
b) Columbia
c) Pennsylvania
d) Harvard

6. Which laboratory did George Herbert Hitchings join in 1942?
a) Wellcome Research Laboratories
b) Burroghs Wellcome Laboratory
c) Fermi National Accelerator Laboratory
d) Smith Kline and French Laboratories

7. When did George Herbert Hitchings and Gertrude Belle Elion produce azathioprione?
a) 1957
b) 1964
c) 1986
d) 1992

8. For what did George Herbert Hitchings win Nobel Prize?
a) Discoveries concerning the molecular structure of DNA
b) Tuberculosis research
c) Devlopment of drugs for combating disease
d) Work on dioptrics of the eye

9. When did George Herbert Hitchings die?
a) 27 February 1998
b) 22 May 1996
c) 12 July 1994
d) 4 December 1992

10. Where did George Herbert Hitchings die?
a) Palm Springs
b) Chapel Hill
c) New York
d) Sacramento

George Herbert Hitchings Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When did George Herbert Hitchings get Nobel Prize for Medicine?
c) 1988

2. When was George Herbert Hitchings born?
b) 18 April 1905

3. Where was George Herbert Hitchings born?
d) Hoquiam

4. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings get master’s degree?
a) Washington

5. At which university did George Herbert Hitchings teach?
d) Harvard

6. Which laboratory did George Herbert Hitchings join in 1942?
b) Burroghs Wellcome Laboratory

7. When did George Herbert Hitchings and Gertrude Belle Elion produce azathioprione?
a) 1957

8. For what did George Herbert Hitchings win Nobel Prize?
c) Devlopment of drugs for combating disease

9. When did George Herbert Hitchings die?
a) 27 February 1998

10. Where did George Herbert Hitchings die?
b) Chapel Hill

Originally posted 2017-02-24 22:35:36.

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

Herbert Henry Asquith Quiz

Herbert Henry Asquith Quiz Questions

1. When was Herbert Henry Asquith Prime Minister of UK?
a) 1901-1905
b) 1908-1916
c) 1918-1922
d) 1895-1900

2. When was Herbert Henry Asquith born?
a) 1 March 1853
b) 2 June 1854
c) 12 September 1852
d) 18 October 1851

3. Where was Herbert Henry Asquith born?
a) Morley
b) Cardiff
c) Glasgow
d) Belfast

4. Which college did Herbert Henry Asquith attend?
a) Corpus Christi College
b) Balliol College
c) Magdalene College
d) Clare College

5. To which party did Herbert Henry Asquith belong?
a) Liberal
b) Conservative
c) Scottish National
d) Labour

6. When did Herbert Henry Asquith become home secretary?
a) 1898
b) 1884
c) 1892
d) 1905

7. What did the Parliament Act of 1911 do?
a) Granted universal adult franchise
b) Reduced the power of House of Lords
c) Gave women aged 21 the right to vote
d) Deprived hereditary peers the right to sit and vote in House of Lords

8. Against which country did UK declare war on 4 August 1914?
a) Russia
b) France
c) Germany
d) Spain

9. When did Herbert Henry Asquith die?
a) 15 February 1928
b) 22 May 1925
c) 16 July 1932
d) 4 October 1937

10. Where did Herbert Henry Asquith die?
a) Manchester
b) Sutton Courtenay
c) Birmingham
d) Richmond

Herbert Henry Asquith Quiz Questions and Answers

1. When was Herbert Henry Asquith Prime Minister of UK?
b) 1908-1916

2. When was Herbert Henry Asquith born?
c) 12 September 1852

3. Where was Herbert Henry Asquith born?
a) Morley

4. Which college did Herbert Henry Asquith attend?
b) Balliol College

5. To which party did Herbert Henry Asquith belong?
a) Liberal

6. When did Herbert Henry Asquith become home secretary?
c) 1892

7. What did the Parliament Act of 1911 do?
b) Reduced the power of House of Lords

8. Against which country did UK declare war on 4 August 1914?
c) Germany

9. When did Herbert Henry Asquith die?
a) 15 February 1928

10. Where did Herbert Henry Asquith die?
b) Sutton Courtenay

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities