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English

Some Interesting Facts

1. Hot water will turn into ice faster than cold water.

2. The Mona Lisa has no eyebrows.

3. The sentence, “The quick brown fox jumps over the lazy dog” uses every letter in the English language (all 26 letters).

4. The strongest muscle in the body is the tongue.

5. Ant’s take rest for around 8 Minutes in 12 hour period.

6. “I Am” is the shortest complete sentence in the English language.

7. Coca-Cola was originally green.

8. The most common name in the world is Mohammed.

9. When the moon is directly overhead, you will weigh slightly less.

10. Camels have three eyelids to protect themselves from the blowing desert sand.

11. There are only two words in the English language that have all five vowels in order: “abstemious” and “facetious.”

12. The name of all the continents end with the same letter that they start with.

13. There are two credit cards for every person in the United States.

14. TYPEWRITER is the longest word that can be made using the letters only on one row of the keyboard.

15. Minus 40 degrees Celsius is exactly the same as minus 40 degrees Fahrenheit.

16. Chocolate can kill dogs, as it contains theobromine, which affects their heart and nervous system.

17. Women blink nearly twice as much as men!

18. You can’t kill yourself by holding your breath.

19. It is impossible to lick your elbow.

20. The Guinness Book of Records holds the record for being the book most often stolen from Public Libraries.

21. People say “Bless you” when you sneeze because when you sneeze, your heart stops for a millisecond.

22. It is physically impossible for pigs to look up into the sky.

23. The “sixth sick sheik’s sixth sheep’s sick” is said to be the toughest tongue twister in the English language.

24. “Rhythm” is the longest English word without a vowel.

25. If you sneeze too hard, you can fracture a rib. If you try to suppress a sneeze, you can rupture a blood vessel in your head or neck and die.

26. Each king in a deck of playing cards represents great king from history.
Spades – King David
Clubs – Alexander the Great,
Hearts – Charlemagne
Diamonds – Julius Caesar.

27. It is impossible to lick your elbow.

28. 111,111,111 x 111,111,111 = 12,345,678,987,654,321

29. If a statue of a person in the park on a horse has both front legs in the air, the person died in battle.
If the horse has one front leg in the air, the person died as a result of wounds received in battle.
If the horse has all four legs on the ground, the person died of natural causes.

30. What do bullet proof vests, fire escapes, windshield wipers and laser printers all have in common?
Ans. – All invented by women.

31. Question – This is the only food that doesn’t spoil. What is this?
Ans. – Honey

32. A crocodile cannot stick its tongue out.

33. A snail can sleep for three years.

34. All polar bears are left handed.

35. American Airlines saved $40,000 in 1987 by eliminating one olive from each salad served in first-class.

36. Butterflies taste with their feet.

37. Elephants are the only animals that can’t jump.

38. In the last 4000 years, no new animals have been domesticated.

39. On average, people fear spiders more than they do death.

40. Stewardesses is the longest word typed with only the left hand.

41. The ant always falls over on its right side when intoxicated.

42. The electric chair was invented by a dentist.

43. The human heart creates enough pressure when it pumps out to the body to squirt blood 30 feet.

44. Rats multiply so quickly that in 18 months, two rats could have over million descendants.

45. Wearing headphones for just an hour will increase the bacteria in your ear by 700 times.

46. The cigarette lighter was invented before the match.

47. Most lipstick contains fish scales.

48. Like fingerprints, everyone’s tongue print is different.

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English, General Knowledge, History, World

25 English Language Oddities

Many cultures find that English might possibly be one of the most difficult languages to learn. Not, in fact, for its words, but for the fact that it has so many unusual and contradictory rules. Just looking over an English study book will tell you that so many odd ifs and buts apply to so many words that it is enough to drive one crazy. Here are 25 examples of the oddities in the English language.

25. “Rhythms” is the longest English word without the normal vowels, a, e, i, o, or u.24. Excluding derivatives, there are only two words in English that end -shion and (though many words end in this sound). These are cushion and fashion.23. “THEREIN” is a seven-letter word that contains thirteen words spelled using consecutive letters: the, he, her, er, here, I, there, ere, rein, re, in, therein, and herein.22. There is only one common word in English that has five vowels in a row: queueing.21. Soupspoons is the longest word that consists entirely of letters from the second half of alphabet.

20. “Almost” is the longest commonly used word in the English language with all the letters in alphabetical order.19. The longest uncommon word whose letters are in alphabetical order is the eight-letter Aegilops (a grass genus).18. The longest common single-word palindromes are deified, racecar, repaper, reviver, and rotator.17. “One thousand” contains the letter A, but none of the words from one to nine hundred ninety-nine has an A.16. “The sixth sick sheik’s sixth sheep’s sick” is said to be the toughest tongue twister in English.

15. Cwm (pronounced “koom”, defined as a steep-walled hollow on a hillside) is a rare case of a word used in English in which w is the nucleus vowel, as is crwth (pronounced “krooth”, a type of stringed instrument). Despite their origins in Welsh, they are accepted English words.14. “Asthma” and “isthmi” are the only six-letter words that begin and end with a vowel and have no other vowels between.13. The nine-word sequence I, in, sin, sing, sting, string, staring, starting (or starling), startling can be formed by successively adding one letter to the previous word.12. “Underground” and “underfund” are the only words in the English language that begin and end with the letters “und.”11. “Stewardesses” is the longest word that can be typed with only the left hand.

10. Antidisestablishmentarianism listed in the Oxford English Dictionary, was considered the longest English word for quite a long time, but today the medical term pneumonoultramicroscopicsilicovolcanoconiosis is usually considered to have the title, despite the fact that it was coined to provide an answer to the question ‘What is the longest English word?’.9. “Dreamt” is the only English word that ends in the letters “mt”.8. There are many words that feature all five regular vowels in alphabetical order, the commonest being abstemious, adventitious, facetious.7. The superlatively long word honorificabilitudinitatibus (27 letters) alternates consonants and vowels.6. “Fickleheaded” and “fiddledeedee” are the longest words consisting only of letters in the first half of the alphabet.

5. The two longest words with only one of the six vowels including y are the 15-letter defenselessness and respectlessness.4. “Forty” is the only number which has its letters in alphabetical order. “One” is the only number with its letters in reverse alphabetical order.3. Bookkeeper is the only word that has three consecutive doubled letters.2. Despite the assertions of a well-known puzzle, modern English does not have three common words ending in -gry. Angry and hungry are the only ones.1. “Ough” can be pronounced in eight different ways. The following sentence contains them all: “A rough-coated, dough-faced ploughman strode through the streets of Scarborough, coughing and hiccoughing thoughtfully.

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English

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-II)

Click HERE for previous questions.

An example of a shield volcano is
(a) Mount Fuji
(b) Mount Pinatubo
(c) Puy de Dome
(d) Mauna Loa
Answer: (d)
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean.Mauna Loa is a shield volcano that has erupted some three dozen times since its first well-documented eruption in 1843

Volcanoes that have erupted in historic times and are still likely to erupt, are known as
(a) Active volcanoes
(b) Dormant volcanoes
(c) Extinct volcanoes
(d) Instinct volcanoes
Answer: (b)

Top of magma is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Pipe
(d) Crater
Answer: (d)
A volcanic crater is a roughly circular depression in the ground caused by volcanic activity. It is typically a bowl-shaped feature within which occurs a vent or vents

Volcano that forms from column of magma is called a/an
(a) underwater volcano
(b) convergent volcano
(c) divergent volcano
(d) hot spot volcano
Answer: (d)

Reference to how thick a liquid is known as
(a) density
(b) conductivity
(c) viscosity
(d) volatility
Answer: (c)

Fluidity of lava is determined by amount of
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) silica
Answer: (d)

A flash flood is a flood that:
(a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
(b) occurs in urban areas
(c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
(d) is caused by the blocking of drains.
Answer: (c)
Flash floods are defined by the speed of flooding, not the source or location of flooding. While flash floods are often caused by heavy rainfall, they can also result from other events, such as drain blockages and bursts or the flooding of a river.

Monsoon is caused by: (CSS-2009)
(a) Seasonal reversal of winds
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Movement of clouds
(d) Rise in temperature
(e) Rain forests
Answer: (a)
The monsoon, which is essentially the seasonal reversal in wind direction, causes most of the rainfall received in Pakistan and some other parts of the world. The primary cause of monsoons is the difference between annual temperature trends over land and sea. The apparent position of the Sun with reference to the Earth oscillates from the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn. Thus the low pressure region created by solar heating also changes latitude. The northeast and southeast trade winds converge in this low pressure zone, which is also known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ. This low pressure regions sees continuous rise of moist wind from the sea surface to the upper layers of the atmosphere, where the cooling means the air can no longer hold so much moisture resulting in precipitation. The rainy seasons of East Asia, sub-Saharan Africa, Australia and the southern parts of North America coincide with the shift of ITCZ towards these regions.

A flood can vary in:
(a) size
(b) speed of water flow
(c) duration
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size, duration and water flow speed of floods can vary. The volume, rate of rise and areal extent (i.e. the total area under flood waters) of flooding can also vary.

When a river’s water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(d) it will flood.
Answer: (c)
River height is the level of water in a river as measured by a river gauging station and is expressed in meters above either the Australian Height Datum (i.e. mean sea level) or an alternative arbitrary ‘zero’ level, depending on the location.

The size of a flood is measured by:
(a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
(b) the level of water in a waterway or river
(c) a river gauging station
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size of a flood can be measured by the highest level that water in a waterway reaches, referred to as the ‘peak water level’ or ‘flood peak’. It can also be measured by the maximum water flow rate in a waterway, referred to as the ‘peak flow rate’ or ‘peak water flow’. Each of these variables can be measured using a river gauging station.

Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?
(a) The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative.
(b) The ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual.
(c) There is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (c)
In a La Niña event, the equatorial ocean surface off the coast of South America is abnormally cool, and the SOI is strongly positive. Trade winds blow strongly across the warm Pacific, picking up plenty of moisture and increasing the likelihood of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.

Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?
(a) bridges and other structures in waterways
(b) the size and windiness of a river
(c) vegetation in and around a river
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Many factors can affect the size of a flood, including rainfall intensity, weather conditions prior to a rainfall event, tidal and storm surges, dams and other man-made and natural water storages, catchment size and shape, soil types in a catchment, vegetation in and around a waterway, the size and windiness of a waterway, levees, bridges and other structures in waterways and catchments, and urbanization.

Seasons are generated by (CSS-2012)
(a) The movement of sun around the Milky Way
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun
(c) Relativistic Quantum
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

The 2010 floods had cost the Pakistan’s economy around
(a) $17b
(b) $11b
(c) $10b
(d) $13b
Answer: (c)
It estimates that just a little less than 1pc of Pakistan’s GDP is exposed to river floods every year. It is ranked 16th by the WRI on the list of the top 20 countries with the highest GDP exposure to river floods.
The World Resources Institute (WRI) says Pakistan falls 5th on the list of top 15 countries that account for 80pc of the population exposed to river-flood risk worldwide.

In Pakistan, the most expensive natural disaster is:
(a) Drought
(b) Floods
(c) Bushfires
(d) Cyclones.
Answer: (b)
Pakistan faces a major financing challenge arising from natural catastrophes, with flooding causing an estimated annual economic impact of between three and four per cent of the federal budget,” adds the report. It estimates the annual economic impact of flooding at between $1.2bn and $1.8bn, or 0.5-0.8pc of GDP.

Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
(a) dispersal of weed species
(b) erosion of soil
(c) release of pollutants into waterways
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Floods can have negative environmental consequences, such as soil erosion, release of pollutants and excess sediments and nutrients into waterways and the ocean, dispersal of weed species, and negative impacts on fish and other aquatic life. Floods can also have positive environmental consequences, such as recharging groundwater systems, filling wetlands, moving useful nutrients around the landscape, and triggering breeding events (for example, of water birds).

Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood, based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Floodplain hydraulic models and flood maps are used to estimate which areas will be inundated based on river height information. Satellite and radar images, rain gauges and river gauging stations are used to estimate river heights.

Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Weather forecasts for a small region are more accurate than those for a large region.
(b) Weather forecasts are more accurate in Melbourne than in Darwin.
(c) Forecasts of temperature are more accurate than forecasts of rainfall.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (a)
The accuracy of weather forecasts varies depending on lead time, the size of the region of interest, the weather variable being forecast, and the latitude of the region. Generally, temperature forecasts are more accurate than rainfall forecasts; the mid-latitudes are easier to forecast than the tropics; and it is generally easier to forecast rainfall over a large area (for example, a large catchment) than local rainfall (for example, a reservoir).

Which of the following is true? Flood warnings:
(a) should not be released until the information is certain
(b) should indicate what the threat is, what
(c) action should be taken, by whom and when
(d) are best if they come from a single source
(e) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Flood warnings should provide information on what the threat is, what action should be taken, by whom and when. While it is desirable for flood warnings to be accurate, warnings are predictions about the future, so there is inevitably some uncertainty. Accuracy needs to be balanced with timeliness, to allow enough time for appropriate action. Warnings are most likely to reach different audiences and to be heeded if they come from multiple trusted sources.

Flood risk refers to:
(a) the chance of a flood occurring
(b) the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters if a flood occurs
(c) the vulnerability of people and properties that are exposed to floodwaters
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk includes both the chance (or probability) of a flood occurring, and the consequences if a flood occurs. The consequences of a flood are in turn affected by the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters for a flood of a particular size, and the vulnerability of those people and properties. For example, a river might burst its banks regularly, but if this flooding occurs in an isolated area where there are no people or infrastructure, then the risk is low. Similarly, a river might flood very rarely, but if many people and properties are located near this river and they live in dwellings that are vulnerable to water damage, then the flood risk will be greater.

Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
(a) zonings and building regulations for new developments
(b) dams, detention basins and levees
(c) flood awareness and education programs
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk in new developments can be reduced by restricting the location of development (zonings) and placing controls (regulations) on development. In existing developed areas, risk can be reduced by modifying flood behaviour (for example, through dams, detention basins, levees, waterway modifications), property modification measures (for example, land filling, flood proofing, house raising, removing developments), and response modification measures (for example, upgrading flood evacuation routes, flood warnings, flood evacuation planning, flood education programs).

The Probable Maximum Flood is:
(a) an estimation of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location
(b) the maximum flood experienced in the last 100 years
(c) the maximum flood experienced in the last 200 years
(d) the maximum flood experienced since flood records have existed.
Answer: (d)
The Probable Maximum Flood (PMF) is an estimate of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location, under the most severe meteorological and hydrological conditions as they are currently understood.

In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
(a) population growth
(b) urbanization
(c) climate change
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
In the future, climate change is likely to result in an increased chance of flash floods and coastal inundation. Australia’s growing population and urbanization are likely to place increased pressure on our waterways and to increase the chance of flooding in cities and the number of properties and people exposed to floodwaters.

In the future, which of the following is unlikely?
(a) There will be an increased chance of flash flooding and coastal inundation.
(b) Flood risk will increase due to population growth and urbanization.
(c) Improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies will reduce the impacts of floods.
(d) We will be able to eliminate the risk of flooding.
Answer: (d)
It is not possible to eliminate the risk of flooding. Indeed, it is likely that flood risk will increase in the future due to climate change, population growth and urbanization. However, we can better manage flood risk through improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies, as well as improved land use planning, floodplain management and integrated water management.

Higher level of floods and droughts are led by
(a) sand storms
(b) lower precipitation
(c) higher precipitation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)

Approximately how fast do tsunami waves travel in the open ocean?
(a) 100 km/hour
(b) 1600 km/hour
(c) 200 km/hour
(d) 400 km/hour
(e) 800 km/hour
Answer: (e)

Tsunami waves travel between 500 and 950 km/hour.
What can cause a tsunami?
(a) Landslide
(b) Underwater earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) All of the above
Tsunamis are usually generated by undersea earthquakes at tectonic plate boundaries, but they can also be triggered by underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or even a giant meteor impact with the ocean.

Do all undersea earthquakes trigger a tsunami?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
An undersea earthquake creates a tsunami only if it is of sufficient force and there is a violent enough movement of the seafloor to displace a massive amount of water.

What does the word “tsunami” mean in Japanese?
(a) Tidal wave
(b) Harbor wave
(c) Killer wave
(d) Century wave
Answer: (b)
English word “tsunami” comes from the Japanese term for “harbor wave.” Tsunamis are not the same things as tidal waves and actually consist of a series of waves.

Witnesses have said that an approaching tsunami sounds like what?
(a) Firecrackers exploding
(b) A freight train
(c) Ice cracking
(d) Nothing—there is absolute silence
Answer: (b)
Many witnesses have described the sound of an approaching tsunami as being similar to a freight train’s.

What is the most active tsunami area?
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Caribbean Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Answer: (a)
Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common.

What is the deadliest tsunami ever recorded?
(a) The 1782 South China Sea tsunami
(b) The 1868 northern Chile tsunami
(c) The 1883 South Java Sea tsunami
(d) The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
Answer: (d)
In 2004 more than 200,000 people—the most ever recorded—died in an Indian Ocean tsunami that was triggered by an earthquake off Sumatra, Indonesia.

How fast can a tsunami travel?
(a) Up to 100 miles an hour (160 kilometers an hour)
(b) Up to 200 miles an hour (320 kilometers an hour)
(c) Up to 500 miles an hour (800 kilometers an hour
(d.) Up to 1,000 miles an hour (1,600 kilometers an hour)
Answer: (c)
Tsunamis race across the sea at up to 500 miles (805 kilometers) an hour—about as fast as a jet airplane. At that pace they can cross the entire expanse of the Pacific Ocean in less than a day.

Can you detect a tsunami in the open ocean?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
No. In the open ocean, the wave length of a tsunami is hundreds of miles long and only a few feet high. Boaters are safer out at sea during a tsunami than close to shore or tied up at port.

Where was the largest tsunami in history recorded?
(a) India
(b) Philippines
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Answer: (d)
In 1971 a wall of water 278 feet (84.7 meters) high surged past Ishigaki Island, Japan. It moved a 750-block of coral 1.5 miles (2.4 kilometers) closer to shore but did little other damage.

What is frequently a warning sign of an impending tsunami?
(a) Winds suddenly change direction
(b) The sky suddenly clears
(c) Seawater suddenly retreats from the shore
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
If the tsunami’s trough reaches shore first, it sucks the water seaward, exposing the seafloor suddenly. The wave’s crest usually hits shore about five minutes later. Recognizing this phenomenon—and getting to higher ground immediately—can save lives.

Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Vegetation
(d) Coal and minerals
Answer: (d)

Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

_____ of stratosphere provides protection to our life.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Argon
Answer: 3

The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are chiefly concentrated in the_______.
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Homosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer: (a)

Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
(a) Sandy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Loamy soil
Answer: (d)

Both power and manure are provided by _______.
(a) Thermal plants
(b) Nuclear plants
(c) Biogas plants
(d) Hydroelectric plants
Answer: (c)

In the atmosphere, the layer above the troposphere is _____.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (a)

______ is the major raw material for biogas.
(a) Plant leaves
(b) Cow dung
(c) Mud
(d) Grass
Answer: (b)

A biosphere reserve conserves and preserves_______.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Wild land
(c) Natural vegetation
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)

Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of_______.
(a) Copper
(b) Uranium
Answer: (b)

Sanctuaries are established to_______.
(a) Rear animals for milk
(b) Entrap animals
(c) Protect animals
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are brought to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. Unlike animal shelters, sanctuaries do not seek to place animals with individuals or groups, instead maintaining each animal until his or her natural death. At present there are 99 Wildlife Sanctuaries in Pakistan

The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.
(a) Extinction
(b) Clad
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Species diversity
Answer: (a)
In biology and ecology, extinction is the end of an organism or of a group of organisms (taxon), normally a species. The moment of extinction is generally considered to be the death of the last individual of the species, although the capacity to breed and recover may have been lost before this point.

Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Petrol
(c) Coal
(d) Uranium
Answer: (d)
Fossil fuels are sources of energy that have developed within the earth over millions of years. Because fossil fuels – oil, natural gas, and coal – take so long to form, they are considered nonrenewable

Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of_______.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Degradation
(c) Putrification
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
The biogas plant operating on the principle of a wet anaerobic fermentation process was selected for the determination of the composition of in-put raw material which is determinative for the final biogas quality. The biogas plant is designed as an accumulation through-flow device. The biogas production takes place during the wet fermentation process in the mesophile operation (average temperature 40°C). The produced biogas is used in a cogeneration unit. The biogas plant operates in automatic mode.

Floods can be prevented by_______.
(a) Afforestation
(b) Cutting the forests
(c) Tilling the land
(d) Removing the top soil
Answer: (a)
Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stand of trees in an area where there was no forest. Reforestation is the reestablishment of forest cover, either naturally (by natural seeding, coppice, or root suckers) or artificially (by direct seeding or planting).
Afforestation Trees are planted near to the river. This means greater interception of rainwater and lower river discharge. This is a relatively low cost option, which enhances the environmental quality of the drainage basin.

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A

Aruba Quiz

Aruba is one of the four constituent countries that form the Kingdom of the Netherlands, together with the Netherlands, Curaçao, and Sint Maarten whose citizens share a single nationality: Dutch citizen. Aruba together with Bonaire and Curaçao referred to as the ABC islands of the Leeward Antilles, the southern island chain of the Lesser Antilles.

Aruba Quiz Questions

1. Which sea surrounds Aruba?
a) Labrador
b) Caribbean
c) Irish
d) Beaufort

2. Which is the capital of Aruba?
a) San Nicolas
b) Oranjestad
c) Sabaneta
d) Caracas

Location map for the Aruba

Location map for the Aruba (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

3. Which is the official language of Aruba?
a) Spanish
b) English
c) French
d) Dutch

4. Which is the highest point in Aruba?
a) Mount Hooiberg
b) Longs Peak
c) Mount Jamanota
d) Granite Peak

Flag-map of Aruba

Flag-map of Aruba (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

5. Which country claimed Aruba in 1499?
a) Spain
b) Portugal
c) Denmark
d) Belgium

6. When did Aruba become a Dutch colony?
a) 1502
b) 1624
c) 1636
d) 1718

7. When was Aruba’s flag first hoisted?
a) 18 March 1976
b) 20 May 1898
c) 29 September 2001
d) 16 December 1996

8. Which is the currency of Aruba?
a) Guilder
b) Florin
c) Franc
d) Euro

Parliament of Aruba in Oranjestad.

Parliament of Aruba in Oranjestad. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

9. Who disappeared in Aruba on 30 May 2005?
a) Bruce Reynolds
b) Ronald Biggs
c) Beth Holloway
d) Natalee Holloway

10. What is the legislature of Aruba?
a) Lagting
b) Staten
c) Bundestag
d) Althing

Aruba Quiz Questions with Answers

1. Which sea surrounds Aruba?
b) Caribbean

Aruba in the Caribbean Sea.

Aruba in the Caribbean Sea. (Photo credit: Wikipedia)

2. Which is the capital of Aruba?
b) Oranjestad

3. Which is the official language of Aruba?
d) Dutch

4. Which is the highest point in Aruba?
c) Mount Jamanota

5. Which country claimed Aruba in 1499?
a) Spain

6. When did Aruba become a Dutch colony?
c) 1636

7. When was Aruba’s flag first hoisted?
a) 18 March 1976

8. Which is the currency of Aruba?
b) Florin

9. Who disappeared in Aruba on 30 May 2005?
d) Natalee Holloway

10. What is the legislature of Aruba?
b) Staten

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English, MCQs / Q&A, World

Matthew Flinders Quiz Questions with Answers

Captain Matthew Flinders was a distinguished English navigator and cartographer, who was the first to circumnavigate Australia and identify it as a continent. -Wikipedia

1. When was Matthew Flinders born?
Answer: 16 March 1774

2. Where was Matthew Flinders born?
Answer: Donington

3. When did Matthew Flinders join the Royal Navy?
Answer: 1789

4. Which land did Matthew Flinders circumnavigate when he commanded Norfolk?
Answer: Van Diemen’s Land

5. Which ship did Matthew Flinders command when he circumnavigated Australia?
Answer: Investigator

6. Which name used by Matthew Flinders replaced the name New Holland?
Answer: Australia

7. When was Matthew Flinders in captivity in Ile de France?
Answer: 1803-1810

8. When was A Voyage to Terra Australis published?
Answer: 1814

9. When did Matthew Flinders die?
Answer: 19 July 1814

10. Where did Matthew Flinders die?
Answer: London

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Personalities

Rules of Precis Writing

Following are the rules of precis writing.

1) Read the given passage carefully at least three times in order to be able to grasp what the writer has said.

2) Underline the important points to be included in your precis. A point is important if it is intimately connected with the main subject and if it is essential for a clear exposition of the theme.

3) Use your own language in the precis. While words and phrases from the original may be used in the precis. Whole sentences should never be lifted out of the original to be included in it.

4) The precis should be roughly one-third of the original passage. Always prepare a rough draft first and count the words. If you find that it is too long, shorten it by removing what seems essential and by condensing phraseology. If it turns out to be too short, read the original to see what more can be added to the precis.

5) Examples, illustrations, and comparisons should be left out of the precis. Figures of speech should be removed and the ideas expressed in clear, direct language.

6) Your own comments on the ideas of the precis are absolutely forbidden. Do not express any opinion, favorable or unfavorable, about the ideas in the original passage.

7) Be very careful about the language you write. Mistakes of Grammar and spelling are penalized as much in the precis as in other forms of composition.

8) See that your precis is a readable piece of English and that its ideas can be understood even by a person who has not gone through the original. This is very important.

9) Your precis should be connected whole. As such it should not be divided into paragraphs. ( THIS RULE DOES NOT APPLY TO VERY LONG ORIGINAL PIECES OF WRITING SUCH AS THOSE SET IN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATIONS).

10) Don’t use the direct form of speech in precis. If the author has written in the first person pronoun using “I” and “my”, you should write in thethird person pronoun: “he” and “his”.

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English, Guidelines

Robert Southey Quiz

Robert Southey Quiz Questions

Click here for answers

1. When was Robert Southey born?
a) 8 February 1764
b) 5 April 1776
c) 12 August 1774
d) 4 December 1768

2. Where was Robert Southey born?
a) Lisbon
b) Liverpool
c) Ipswich
d) Bristol

3. Which school did Robert Southey attend?
a) St. George’s School
b) Westminster School
c) St. David’s School
d) Rugby School

4. Which college did Robert Southey attend?
a) Balliol College
b) Trinity College
c) King’s College
d) St. Andrew’s College

5. When did Robert Southey marry X?
a) 28 January 1799
b) 18 June 1798
c) 12 September 1796
d) 14 November 1795

6. When was Joan of Arc published?
a) 1792
b) 1796
c) 1788
d) 1786

7. What did Robert Southey and Samuel Coleridge wanted to establish?
a) Pantisocracy
b) Aristocracy
c) Plutocracy
d) Gerontocracy

8. Which Robert Southey book was published in 1814?
a) After Blenheim
b) Letters from Spain
c) Roderick the Last of the Goths
d) Madoc

9. When did Robert Southey die?
a) 21 March 1843
b) 19 May 1844
c) 23 July 1846
d) 15 October 1848

10. Where did Robert Southey die?
a) Glamorgan
b) Keswick
c) Edinburgh
d) Glasgow

Robert Southey Quiz Questions with Answers

1. When was Robert Southey born?
c) 12 August 1774

2. Where was Robert Southey born?
d) Bristol

3. Which school did Robert Southey attend?
b) Westminster School

4. Which college did Robert Southey attend?
a) Balliol College

5. When did Robert Southey marry X?
d) 14 November 1795

6. When was Joan of Arc published?
b) 1796

7. What did Robert Southey and Samuel Coleridge wanted to establish?
a) Pantisocracy

8. Which Robert Southey book was published in 1814?
c) Roderick the Last of the Goths

9. When did Robert Southey die?
a) 21 March 1843

10. Where did Robert Southey die?
b) Keswick

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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A, Personalities

John Dryden Quiz

John Dryden was an influential English poet, literary critic, translator, and playwright who dominated the literary life of Restoration England to such a point that the period came to be known in literary circles as the Age of Dryden. Walter Scott called him “Glorious John”. He was made Poet Laureate in 1667. Source: Wikipedia

John Dryden Quiz Questions

1. When was John Dryden born? (Dates according to Gregorian calendar)
a) 2 February 1641
b) 15 May 1636
c) 19 August 1631 (Correct)
d) 15 December 1628

2. Where was John Dryden born?
a) Aldwinkle  (Correct)
b) Cardiff
c) Liverpool
d) Dorchester

3. Which school did John Dryden attend?
a) Shrewsbury School
b) Westminster School (Correct)
c) Harrow School
d) St. Paul’s School

 

4. Which poem did John Dryden write for the coronation of Charles II?
a) The Medall
b) The Hind and the Panther
c) Religio Laici
d) To His Sacred Majesty (Correct)

5. Which play did John Dryden write in 1665?
a) Secret Love
b) The Indian Emperour (Correct)
c) All for Love
d) The Conquest of Granada

6. When did John Dryden write Annus Mirabilis?
a) 1672
b) 1675
c) 1667 (Correct)
d) 1701

7. Which poem written by John Dryden regarding successor to Charles II angered Whigs?
a) Absalom and Achitophel (Correct)
b) Eleonara
c) Love Triumphant
d) Cleomenes

 

8. When was John Dryden poet laureate?
a) 1640-1648
b) 1701-1715
c) 1690-1700
d) 1668-1688 (Correct)

9. When did John Dryden die?
a) 26 January 1715
b) 12 May 1700 (Correct)
c) 11 July 1703
d) 12 November 1699

10. Where did John Dryden die?
a) Cambridge
b) London (Correct)
c) Oxford
d) Bristol

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MCQs / Q&A, Personalities