Extreme

General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I)

by

1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.

2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins

3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)

4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.

5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.

6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.

7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.

8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes

9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.

10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.

11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.

13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.

14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)

15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.

16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.

17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.

18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)

19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)

20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)

22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)

23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)

24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)

25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)

26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)

27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.

28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)

29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.

30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)

32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)

33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)

34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.

35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)

36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)

37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)

38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)

39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)

40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)

41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)

42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)

43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)

44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)

45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)

46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)

47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)

48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.

49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)

50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)

General Science & Ability | Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-III)

by

Click HERE for Q.No.1-50
Click HERE for Q.No.51-100

101) Which type of star is maintained by the pressure of an electron gas?
(a) Main Sequence Star
(b) White Dwarf
(c) Neutron Star
(d) Black Hole
Answer: (b)
White dwarfs are stars supported by pressure of degenerate electron gas. i.e. in their interiors thermal energy kT is much smaller then Fermi energy Ep. We shall derive the equations of structure of white dwarfs, sometimes called degenerate dwarfs, in the limiting case when their thermal pressure may be neglected, but the degenerate electron gas may be either non-relativistic. somewhat relativistic. or ultra-relativistic.

102) Which of the following first hypothesized that the Earth orbited the sun?
(a) Alexander the Great
(b) Copernicus
(c) Socrates
(d) Tycho Brahe
Answer: (b)
Nicolaus Copernicus was a Renaissance mathematician and astronomer who formulated a model of the universe that placed the Sun rather than the Earth at the center of the universe.

103) The LAST manned moon flight was made in what year?
(a) 1971 (b) 1972
(c) 1973 (d) 1974
Answer: (b)
The last manned landing Apollo 17 on the Moon to date, which took place on December 11, 1972, was made by Commander Eugene Cernan and lunar module pilot Harrison Schmitt who was also the first scientist on the Moon.

104) A planet is said to be at aphelion when it is:
(a) closest to the sun
(b) farthest from the sun
(c) at it’s highest point above the ecliptic
(d) at it’s lowest point below the ecliptic
Answer: (b)

105) The word Albedo refers to which of the following?
(a) The wobbling motion of a planet
(b) The amount of light a planet reflects
(c) The phase changes of a planet
(d) The brightness of a star
Answer: (b)
Albedo is a measure of the reflectivity of a surface. The albedo effect when applied to the Earth is a measure of how much of the Sun’s energy is reflected back into space. Overall, the Earth’s albedo has a cooling effect. (The term ‘albedo’ is derived from the Latin for ‘whiteness’).

106) A pulsar is actually a:
(a) black hole
(b) white dwarf
(c) red giant
(d) neutron star
Answer: (d)

107) Astronomers use Cepheid’s principally as measures of what? Is it:
(a) size
(b) speed
(c) chemical composition
(d) distance
Answer: (d)

108) Where are most asteroids located? Is it between:
(a) Jupiter and Saturn
(b) Mars and Venus
(c) Earth and Mars
(d) Mars and Jupiter
Answer: (d)

109) The precession of the Earth refers to the:
(a) change from night to day.
(b) Earth’s motion around the sun.
(c) change in orientation of the Earth’s axis.
(d) effect of the moon on the Earth’s orbit.
Answer: (c)
Precession is the change in orientation of the Earth’s rotational axis. The precession cycle takes about 19,000 – 23,000 years. Precession is caused by two factors: a wobble of the Earth’s axis and a turning around of the elliptical orbit of the Earth itself (Thomas, 2002). Obliquity affected the tilt of the Earth’s axis, precession affects the direction of the Earth’s axis. The change in the axis location changes the dates of perihelion (closest distance from sun) and aphelion (farthest distance from sun), and this increases the seasonal contrast in one hemisphere while decreasing it in the other hemisphere ( Kaufman, 2002). currently, the Earth is closest to the sun in the northern hemisphere winter, which makes the winters there less severe (Thomas, 2002). Another consequence of precession is a shift in the celestial poles. 5000 years ago the North Star was Thuban in the constellation Draco. Currently the North Star is Polaris in the constellation Ursa Minor.

110) The Magellanic cloud is a:
(a) nebula
(b) galaxy
(c) super nova remnant
(d) star cluster
Answer: (b)

111) The comet known as Halley’s Comet has an average period of:
(a) 56 years
(b) 66 years
(c) 76 years
(d) 86 years
Answer: (c)
Halley’s Comet orbits the Sun every 76.0 years and has an orbital eccentricity of 0.97. Comet Halley was visible in 1910 and again in 1986. Its next perihelion passage will be in early 2062.

112) Which one of the following planets has no moons?
(a) Mars
(b) Neptune
(c) Venus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)

113) The rocks that enter the earth’s atmosphere and blaze a trail all the way to the ground and do not burn up completely are known as:
(a) meteorites
(b) meteors
(c) asteroids
(d) none of these
Answer: (a)
A meteorite is a solid piece of debris from an object, such as a comet, asteroid, or meteoroid, that originates in outer space and survives its passage through the Earth’s atmosphere and impact with the Earth’s surface

114) 95% of the Martian atmosphere is composed of what substance?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Nitrogen
(c) Argon
(d) Carbon monoxide
Answer: (a)
The atmosphere of Mars is about 100 times thinner than Earth’s, and it is 95 percent carbon dioxide.

115) What is the motion called when a planet seems to be moving westward in the sky?
(a) Retrograde
(b) Parallax
(c) Opcentric
(d) Reverse parallax
Answer: (a)
Retrograde motion, in astronomy, describes the orbit of a celestial body that runs counter to the direction of the spin of that body which it orbits. Apparent retrograde motion, in astronomy, is the apparent motion of planets as observed from a particular vantage point.

116) In what year did Galileo first use an optical telescope to study the moon?
(a) 1492 (b) 1611
(c) 1212 (d) 1743
Answer: (b)

117) Geocentric means around:
(a) Jupiter (b) the Earth
(c) the Moon (d) the Sun
Answer: (b)

118) The Pythagoreans appear to have been the first to have taught that the Earth is:
(a) at the center of the Universe.
(b) spherical in shape.
(c) orbits around the sun.
(d) flat with sharp edges.
Answer: (b)

119) A device which would not work on the Moon is:
(a) thermometer
(b) siphon
(c) spectrometer
(d) spring balance
Answer: (b)
Siphons will not work in the International Space Station where there is air but no gravity, but neither will they work on the Moon where there is gravity but no air

120) Of the following colors, which is bent least in passing through aprism?
(a) orange (b) violet
(c) green (d) red
Answer: (d)

121) In a reflecting telescope where in the tube is the objective mirror placed?
(a) the top to the tube
(b) the middle of the tube
(c) the bottom of the tube
(d) the side of the tube
Answer: (c)

122) What does it mean when someone says that comets have eccentric orbits? Does it mean
(a) they have open orbits
(b) they have nearly circular orbits
(c) their orbits are unpredictable
(d) the sun is far from the foci of their orbits
Answer: (d)

123) What causes the gas tail of a comet to always point away from the sun?
(a) solar wind
(b) air pressure
(c) centrifugal force
(d) gravity
Answer: (a)

124) What are Saturn’s rings composed of?
(a) completely connected solid masses
(b) billions of tiny solid particles
(c) mixtures of gases
(d) highly reflective cosmic clouds
Answer: (b)

125) Of the following, which is the only planet which CANNOT be seen with the unaided eye?
(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Neptune
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
The ice giant Neptune was the first planet located through mathematical predictions rather than through regular observations of the sky. Nearly 4.5 billion kilometers (2.8 billion miles) from the Sun, Neptune orbits the Sun once every 165 years. It is invisible to the naked eye because of its extreme distance from Earth. In 2011 Neptune completed its first orbit since its discovery in 1846.

126) Accretion is:
(a) the gradual accumulation of matter in one location usually due to gravity.
(b) the process of moon formation for planets.
(c) the process of matter accumulation due to centripetal force.
(d) the disintegration of matter.
Answer: (b)

127) A blue shift means a Doppler shift of light from a(an)
(a) receding star.
(b) blue star.
(c) approaching star.
(d) fixed star.
Answer: (c)
In the Doppler effect for visible light, the frequency is shifted toward the blue end of the spectrum when the light source (such as a star) is approaching.

128) The first and largest asteroid discovered was:
(a) Pallas.
(b) Juno.
(c) Ceres.
(d) Trojan.
Answer: (c)

129) The Crab Nebula consists of the remnants of a supernova which was observed by:
(a) Brahe in 1572.
(b) Kepler and Galileo in 1604.
(c) the Chinese in 1054 A.D.
(d) several ancient civilizations in 236 B.C.
Answer: (c)
The Crab Nebula, the result of a supernova noted by Earth-bound chroniclers in 1054 A.D., is filled with mysterious filaments that are are not only tremendously complex, but appear to have less mass than expelled in the original supernova and a higher speed than expected from a free explosion. The Crab Nebula spans about 10 light-years. In the nebula’s very center lies a pulsar: a neutron star as massive as the Sun but with only the size of a small town. The Crab Pulsar rotates about 30 times each second.

130) The atmosphere of Venus contains mostly
(a) oxygen
(b) carbon dioxide
(c) nitrogen
(d) water
Answer: (b)
The atmosphere of Venus is composed of about 96% carbon dioxide, with most … various other corrosive compounds, and the atmosphere contains little water.

131) On the celestial sphere, the annual path of the Sun is called
(a) the eclipse path.
(b) ecliptic.
(c) diurnal.
(d) solstice.
Answer: (b)
The ecliptic is an imaginary line on the sky that marks the annual path of the sun. It is the projection of Earth’s orbit onto the celestial sphere.

132) The angular distance between a planet and the Sun, as viewed from the Earth, is called
(a) angle of inclination.
(b) elongation.
(c) latitude.
(d) opposition.
Answer: (b)
Elongation is the angular distance between the sun, and another object such a moon or a planet as seen from earth. There are several special names for these angular distances. The different names of these angles depend on the status, inferior or superior, of the planet. The planets closer to the sun than the earth are called inferior planets. The planets farther away from the sun than earth are called superior planets.
Elongation is measured from earth as the angle between the sun and the planet. Sometimes the apparent relative position of a planet in relation to the sun is called the aspect, or configuration, of a planet.

133) Which of the following has the highest density?
(a) Earth
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Earth has the highest density of any planet in the Solar System, at 5.514 g/cm3. This is considered the standard by which other planet’s densities are measured. In addition, the combination of Earth’s size, mass and density also results in a surface gravity of 9.8 m/s². This is also used as a the standard (one g) when measuring the surface gravity of other planets.

134) Which of the following planets is NOT a terrestrial planet?
(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Mars
(d) Mercury
Answer: (b)
The term terrestrial planet is derived from the Latin “Terra” (i.e. Earth). Terrestrial planets are therefore those that are “Earth-like”, meaning they are similar in structure and composition to planet Earth. All those planets found within the Inner Solar System – Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars – are examples of terrestrial planets. Each are composed primarily of silicate rock and metal, which is differentiated between a dense, metallic core and a silicate mantle.

135) Why do we see lunar eclipses much more often than solar eclipses?
(a) Lunar eclipses occur more often than solar eclipses.
(b) Lunar eclipses last longer than solar eclipses.
(c) The lunar eclipse is visible to much more of the Earth than a solar eclipse.
(d) The moon is closer to the Earth than the sun.
Answer: (c)
Lunar and solar eclipses occur with about equal frequency. Lunar eclipses are more widely visible because Earth casts a much larger shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse than the Moon casts on Earth during a solar eclipse. As a result, we are more likely to see a lunar eclipse than a solar eclipse.

136) A star like object with a very large red shift is a
(a) Neutron star.
(b) Nova.
(c) Quasar.
(d) Supernova.
Answer: (c)
Quasars: In the 1930’s, Edwin Hubble discovered that all galaxies have a positive redshift. In other words, all galaxies were receding from the Milky Way.

137) The apparent magnitude of an object in the sky describes its
(a) Size
(b) Magnification
(c) Brightness
(d) Distance
Answer: (c)

138) The Van Allen belts are:
(a) caused by the refraction of sunlight like rainbows.
(b) charged particles trapped in the Earth’s magnetic field.
(c) caused by the reflection of polar snow.
(d) caused by precession.
Answer: (b)
The Van Allen belts are a collection of charged particles, gathered in place by Earth’s magnetic field. They can wax and wane in response to incoming energy from the sun, sometimes swelling up enough to expose satellites in low-Earth orbit to damaging radiation.

139) A coordinate system based on the ecliptic system is especially useful for the studies of
(a) Planets
(b) Stars
(c) The Milky Way
(d) Galaxies
Answer: (a)

140) The mean distance of the earth from the sun in astronomical units is:
(a) 3.7 (b) 10
(c) 1 (d) 101
Answer: (c)
In astronomy, an astronomical unit is defined as the average distance from the Sun to the Earth, or about 150 million kilometers (93 million miles). You can abbreviate astronomical unit as AU.
Since the distances in astronomy are so vast, astronomers use this measurement to bring the size of numbers down.
For example, Earth is 1 au from the Sun, and Mars is 1.523 AU. That’s much easier than saying that Mars is 227,939,000 km away from the Sun.

141) What process produces a star’s energy?
(a) hydrogen and oxygen combustion
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) neutron beta decay
(d) nuclear fission
Answer: (b)
The enormous luminous energy of the stars comes from nuclear fusion processes in their centers. Depending upon the age and mass of a star, the energy may come from proton-proton fusion, helium fusion, or the carbon cycle.

142) What is the most distant object in the sky that the human eye can see without optical instruments?
(a) The Horsehead Nebula
(b) The Andromeda Galaxy
(c) The Sagittarius Constellation
(d) The Aurora Borealis
Answer: (b)
The Andromeda Galaxy (M31) is the closest large galaxy to the Milky Way and is one of a few galaxies that can be seen unaided from the Earth. In approximately 4.5 billion years the Andromeda Galaxy and the Milky Way are expected to collide and the result will be a giant elliptical galaxy. Andromeda is accompanied by 14 dwarf galaxies, including M32, M110, and possibly M33 (The Triangulum Galaxy).

143) Which civilization developed and implemented the first solar calendar?
(a) Babylonian
(b) Greek
(c) Egyptian
(d) Aztec
Answer: (c)
A solar calendar is a calendar whose dates indicate the position of the earth on its revolution around the sun and is based on the seasonal year of approximately 365 1/4 days, the time it takes the Earth to revolve once around the Sun. The Egyptians appear to have been the first to develop a solar calendar, using as a fixed point the annual sunrise reappearance of the Dog Star — Sirius, or Sothis — in the eastern sky, which coincided with the annual flooding of the Nile River. They constructed a calendar of 365 days, consisting of 12 months of 30 days each, with 5 days added at the year’s end. The Egyptians’ failure to account for the extra fraction of a day, however, caused their calendar to drift gradually into error.

144) What is the HOTTEST region of the sun?
(a) The core
(b) The photosphere
(c) The chromospheres
(d) The corona
Answer: (d)
The corona is the outermost layer of the Sun, starting at about 1300 miles (2100 km) above the solar surface (the photosphere) The temperature in the corona is 500,000 K (900,000 degrees F, 500,000 degrees C) or more, up to a few million K. The corona cannot be seen with the naked eye except during a total solar eclipse, or with the use of a coronagraph. The corona does not have an upper limit.
A study published in 2012 in Nature Communications by researchers at Northumbria University found a possible mechanism that causes some stars to have a corona that is almost 200 times hotter than their photosphere (the star’s surface).

145) The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because:
(a) the moon is not rotating about its axis.
(b) the moon’s motion was fixed at its creation by the laws of inertia.
(c) tidal forces keep the moon’s rotation and orbiting motion in sync with each other.
(d) the moon’s magnetic poles keep aligned with the Earth’s magnetic field.
Answer: (b)

146) The resolving power of a telescope depends on the:
(a) focal ratio
(b) diameter of the objective
(c) magnification
(d) focal length
Answer: (b)
The resolving power of a telescope depends on the diameter of the telescope’s light-gathering apparatus, or objective. In a refracting telescope, the objective lens is the first lens the light passes through. In a reflecting telescope, the objective is the telescope’s primary mirror. In a Schmidt-Cassegrain telescope, the objective is also the primary mirror. As the diameter of the telescope’s objective increases, the resolving power increases.

147) On a clear, dark, moonless night, approximately how many stars can be seen with the naked eye?
(a) 300 (b) 1,000
(c) 3,000 (d) 10,000
Answer: (c)
On any clear dark moonless night a person can see about 3000 stars of our galaxy without the aid of a telescope

148) The study of the origin and evolution of the universe is known as:
(a) Tomography
(b) cystoscopy
(c) cryology
(d) cosmology
Answer: (d)
Cosmology is the branch of astronomy involving the origin and evolution of the universe, from the Big Bang to today and on into the future. According to NASA, the definition of cosmology is “the scientific study of the large scale properties of the universe as a whole.”

149) According to Kepler’s Laws, all orbits of the planets are:
(a) ellipses
(b) parabolas
(c) hyperbolas
(d) square
Answer: (a)
Johannes Kepler, working with data painstakingly collected by Tycho Brahe without the aid of a telescope, developed three laws which described the motion of the planets across the sky.
1. The Law of Orbits: All planets move in elliptical orbits, with the sun at one focus.
2. The Law of Areas: A line that connects a planet to the sun sweeps out equal areas in equal times.
3. The Law of Periods: The square of the period of any planet is proportional to the cube of the semimajor axis of its orbit.
Kepler’s laws were derived for orbits around the sun, but they apply to satellite orbits as well.

Constituents and Structure Solved MCQs (Set-I) | General Science & Ability

by

The universe, Galaxy, Light Year, Solar System, Sun, Earth, Astronomical System of Units

1) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
In terms of mass, volume, and surface area, Jupiter is the biggest planet in our Solar System by a wide margin.
Size and Mass:
Jupiter’s mass, volume, surface area and mean circumference are 1.8981 x 1027 kg, 1.43128 x 1015 km3, 6.1419 x 1010 km2, and 4.39264 x 105 km respectively. To put that in perspective, Jupiter diameter is roughly 11 times that of Earth, and 2.5 the mass of all the other planets in the Solar System combined.

2) The universe is ———-. (CSS 1996)

(a) Stationary
(b) Expanding
(c) Contracting
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
In June 2016, NASA and ESA scientists reported that the universe was found to be expanding 5% to 9% faster than thought earlier, based on studies using the Hubble Space Telescope

3) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) . 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) . 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Moon has no atmosphere. None. That’s why astronauts have to wear their spacesuits when they get outside of their spacecraft on the surface of the Moon.
Atmosphere of the Moon might be electro statically levitated moon dust. These tiny particles are constantly leaping up and down off the surface of the Moon.

4) Who gave the first evidence of the Big- Bang theory?

(a) Edwin Hubble
(b) Albert Einstein
(c) S. Chandrasekhar
(d) Stephen Hawking
Answer: (a)
The Hubble Space Telescope was named after astronomer Edwin Powell Hubble (1889–1953), who made some of the most important discoveries in modern astronomy. Dr. Hubble determined that the farther a galaxy is from Earth, the faster it appears to move away. This notion of an “expanding” universe formed the basis of the Big Bang theory, which states that the universe began with an intense burst of energy at a single moment in time — and has been expanding ever since.

5) Which one of the following planets has largest number of natural satellites or moons?

(a) Jupiter
(b) Mars
(c) Saturn
(d) Venus
Answer: (a)
In the Solar System, there are 179 satellites. A majority of those moons belong to the planet of Jupiter, the second most belonging to Saturn.

6) Which of the following planets rotates clock wise?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Mercury
Answer: (c)
Venus is the only planet that rotates clockwise. Venus (radius 3,760.4 miles) is similar to Earth (radius 3,963.19 miles) in size and structure but spins very slowly; a day on Venus is 243 Earth days long.

7) Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their sizes?

(a) Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune
(b) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(c) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(d) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Answer: (a)
Jupiter (69,911 km / 43,441 miles) – 1,120% the size of Earth
Saturn (58,232 km / 36,184 miles) – 945% the size of Earth
Uranus (25,362 km / 15,759 miles) –400% the size of Earth
Neptune (24,622 km / 15,299 miles) – 388% the size of Earth
Earth (6,371 km / 3,959 miles)

8) The time taken by the Sun to revolve around the center of our galaxy is

(a) 50 Million years
(b) 100 Million years
(c) 250 Million years
(d) 365 Million years
Answer: (c)
the Sun is dragging us around the galaxy at around 800,000km/h, taking around 250 million years to complete a single orbit.
That means our Solar System has made around 18 complete circuits since it was formed around 4.5 billion years ago.

9): The planet having the largest diameter is

(a) Earth
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Uranus
Answer: (b)
Jupiter is composed primarily of gaseous and liquid matter. It is the largest of the four giant planets in the Solar System and hence its largest planet. It has a diameter of 142,984 km (88,846 mi) at its equator

10) The planet Mercury completes one rotation around the sun is (CSS 2010)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 98 days
(d) 60 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A year on Mercury is just 88 days long. One solar day (the time from noon to noon on the planet’s surface) on Mercury lasts the equivalent of 176 Earth days while the sidereal day (the time for 1 rotation in relation to a fixed point) lasts 59 Earth days. Mercury is nearly tidally locked to the Sun and over time this has slowed the rotation of the planet to almost match its orbit around the Sun. Mercury also has the highest orbital eccentricity of all the planets with its distance from the Sun ranging from 46 to 70 million km.

11) The biggest planet in our solar system is (CSS 2013)

(a) Venus
(b) Pluto
(c) Jupiter
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system. Jupiter has a mean radius of 43,440.7 miles (69,911 kilometers), about a tenth that of the sun. However, its rapid rotation — it spins once every 9.8 hours

12) The atmosphere of moon consists of: (CSS 2013)

(a) 90% Hydrogen, 10% Nitrogen
(b) 80%Nitrogen, 20% Hydrogen
(c) 60% Nitrogen, 40%inert gases
(d) None of these
Answer: (d)
The Apollo 17 mission deployed an instrument called the Lunar Atmospheric Composition Experiment (LACE) on the moon’s surface. It detected small amounts of a number of atoms and molecules including helium, argon, and possibly neon, ammonia, methane and carbon dioxide.

13) Which of the following explains the reason why there is no total eclipse of the sun? (CSS 2009)

(a) Size of the earth in relation to that of moon
(b) Orbit of moon around earth
(c) Direction of rotation of earth around sun
(d) Area of the sun covered by the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (d)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

14) The sun produces most of its energy by (CSS 2012)

(a) Nuclear fusion which involves converting “H” to “He”
(b) Nuclear fission involving the burning of uranium & plutonium
(c) Nuclear fission involving the combining of uranium and palladium
(d) None of these
Answer: (a)
Sun, like all stars, is able to create energy because it is essentially a massive fusion reaction.
The core of the Sun is the region that extends from the center to about 20–25% of the solar radius. It is here, in the core, where energy is produced by hydrogen atoms (H) being converted into molecules of helium (He) This is possible thanks to the extreme pressure and temperature that exists within the core, which are estimated to be the equivalent of 250 billion atmospheres (25.33 trillion KPa) and 15.7 million kelvin, respectively.

15) Although the mass of a man on moon remains same as on the earth he will (CSS 2012)

(a) Be much happier there
(b) Weigh one sixth as much
(c) Weigh twice as much
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The Moon’s gravity is one sixth of the Earth’s gravity. A 120 kg astronaut weighs 1200 N on Earth. On the Moon they would weigh only 200 N. The astronaut’s mass is 120kg wherever they are.

16) The planet of the solar system which has maximum numbers of Moon is: (CSS 2011)

(a) Jupiter
(b) Venus
(c) Saturn
(d) Uranus
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)

17): The earth rotates 011 its axis from_

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (d)
The Earth rotates from the west towards east. As viewed from North Star or polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where the Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.

18): Name two planets which revolve around their axis from east to west

(a) Earth and Venus
(b) Mars and Earth
(c) Venus and Uranus
(d) Mars and Uranus
Answer: (c)
Planets have no light of their own and all of them expect Venus and Uranus, rotate upon their axis from west to east.

19) Our sun is classified as (CSS 2012)

(a) A Blue giant
(b) A Yellow dwarf
(c) Supernova
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The sun is classified as a G-type main-sequence star, or G dwarf star, or more imprecisely, a yellow dwarf. Actually, the sun — like other G-type stars — is white, but appears yellow through Earth’s atmosphere. Stars generally get bigger as they grow older

20): Name the planet which revolve approximately 90 degree with its orbital plane_.

(a) Neptune
(b) Venus
(c) Uranus
(d) Jupiter
Answer: (c)
Unlike any other planet, Uranus rotates on its side. That is, the rotation axis is tilted approximately 90 degrees relative to the planet’s orbital plane.

21): The hottest planet of our solar system is
(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Mars
(d) Earth
Answer: (b)
Venus’s thick atmosphere made up mainly of CO2 makes it the hottest planet in the solar system. Mercury is colder because it’s atmosphere is thin.

22): Which of the following constellation contains Pole Star?

(a) Orion
(b) Ursa Major
(c) Ursa Minor
(d) Scorpio
Answer: (b)

23): All the stars appear to move from

(a) North to south
(b) South to north
(c) East to west
(d) West to east
Answer: (c)
Every day, the Sun, Moon, planets, and stars appear to rise in the east and set in the west. Actually, these celestial objects aren’t moving that fast, but Earth is. It spins on its axis from west to east approximately every 24 hours.
Because we are standing on Earth’s surface, we move along with it. To us, it appears as if everything in the sky is moving from east to west.

24): The body burning like a star and coming towards the earth

(a) Comet
(b) Meteor
(c) Ceres
(d) Satellites
Answer: (b)
Fleeting trails of light are called meteors or shooting stars and they are created by small particles, some no bigger than a grain of rice, as they are completely burned up high in the atmosphere: about 100 km (or 60 miles) above the Earth. They are over literally in the blink of an eye. Space debris is collectively termed meteoroids, those larger fragments that reach the ground are called meteorites. Very big meteoroids are also known as asteroids. If one collides with Earth it would cause a major catastrophe.

25) Which of the following is not true?

(a) Planets rotate on their own axis.
(b) Planets do not emit light.
(c) Some planets are gaseous and some are rocky
(d) Most of the planets have rings around them.
Answer: (d)

26) Which is the brightest planet?

(a) Mars
(b) Jupiter
(c) Venus
(d) Saturn
Answer: (c)
Venus is so bright because its thick clouds reflect most of the sunlight that reaches it (about 70%) back into space, and because it is the closest planet to Earth. Venus can often be seen within a few hours after sunset or before sunrise as the brightest object in the sky (other than the moon)

27) The stars in space are ___.

(a) Uniformly spread out.
(b) Distributed completely at random
(c) Chiefly in the Milky Way
(d) Mostly contained within widely separated galaxies
Answer: (d)

28) “Black holes” refer to: (CSS 2009)

(a) Hole occurring in heavenly bodies
(b) Bright spots on the sun
(c) Collapsing objects of high density
(d) Collapsing of low density
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)

29) The Milky Way is _____.

( a) a gas cloud in the solar system
(b) a gas cloud in the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(c) the galaxy of which the sun is a member
(d) a nearby galaxy
Answer: (c)

30) Relative to the center of our galaxy, ____.

( a) its starts are stationary
(b) its stars move entirely at random
(c) its stars revolve
(d) Population I starts are stationary and Population II star revolve
Answer: (c)

31) Evidence of various kinds suggests that at the center of our galaxy is a ___.

( a) Quasar
(b) Pulsar
(c) Neutron star
(d) Black hole
Answer: (d)
A supermassive black hole (SMBH) is the largest type of black hole, in the order of hundreds of thousands to billions of solar masses (M☉), and is found in the centre of almost all currently known massive galaxies. In the case of the Milky Way, the SMBH corresponds with the location of Sagittarius A*

32) A radio telescope is basically a (an) __.

(a) device for magnifying radio waves
(b) Telescope remotely controlled by radio
(c) Directional antenna connected to a sensitive radio receiver
(d) Optical telescope that uses electronic techniques to produce an image
Answer: (c)
Radio telescope is an astronomical instrument consisting of a radio receiver and an antenna system that is used to detect radio-frequency radiation emitted by extraterrestrial sources. Because radio wavelengths are much longer than those of visible light, radio telescopes must be very large in order to attain the resolution of optical telescopes.
The first radio telescope, built in 1937 by Grote Reber of Wheaton

33) Sun is a: (CSS 2011)

(a) Planet
(b) Comet
(c) Satellite
(d) Aurora
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
The Sun (or Sol), is the star at the centre of our solar system
The Sun is by far the largest object in the solar system. It contains more than 99.8% of the total mass of the Solar System (Jupiter contains most of the rest).

34) The age of the solar system is (CSS 2011)

(a) 4.5 billion years
(b) 5.5 billion years
(c) 6.5 billion years
(d) 7.5 billion years
(e) None of these
Answer: (e)
By studying several things, mostly meteorites, and using radioactive dating techniques, specifically looking at daughter isotopes, scientists have determined that the Solar System is 4.6 billion years old. Well, give or take a few million years. That age can be extended to most of the objects and material in the Solar System.

35) An eclipse of the sun occurs when (CSS 2011)

(a) The moon is between the sun and the earth
(b) The sun is between the earth and the moon
(c) The earth is between the sun and the moon
(d) The earth casts its shadow on the moon
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.

36) Founder of modern astronomy was: (CSS 2009)

(a) Archimedes
(b) William Gilbert
(c) Nicolaus Copernicus
(d) Michael Faraday
(e) None of these
Answer: (c)
Considered today to be the father of modern astronomy, Nicolaus Copernicus was born on February 19, 1473 in Torun, Poland.

37) Orbital period of the planet Mercury around the sun is: (CSS 2009)

(a) 88 days
(b) 365 days
(c) 2 years
(d) 98 days
(e) None of these
Answer: (a)
Mercury has an orbital period of 88 days (87.969 to be exact), which means a single year is 88 Earth days – or the equivalent of about 0.241 Earth years. But here’s the thing. Because of Mercury’s slow rotation (once every 58.646 days) and its rapid orbital speed (47.362 km/s), one day on Mercury actually works out to 175.96 Earth days.

38) Primary cosmic rays are composed largely of very fast ___.

( a) Protons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Electrons
(d) Gamma rays
Answer: (a)
Of primary cosmic rays, which originate outside of Earth’s atmosphere, about 99% are the nuclei (stripped of their electron shells) of well-known atoms, and about 1% are solitary electrons (similar to beta particles). Of the nuclei, about 90% are simple protons, i. e. hydrogen nuclei; 9% are alpha particles, identical to helium nuclei, and 1% are the nuclei of heavier elements, called HZE ions

39) Cosmic rays ____.

(a) Circulate freely through space
(b) are trapped in our galaxy by electric fields
(c) are trapped in our galaxy by magnetic fields
(d) are trapped in our galaxy by gravitational fields
Answer: (c)

40) The red shift in the spectral lines of light reaching us from other galaxies implies that these galaxies ______.

( a) are moving closer to one another
(b) are moving farther apart from one another
(c) are in rapid rotation
(d) Consist predominantly of red giant stars
Answer: (b)

41) According to Einstein’s general theory of relativity, the universe _____.

( a) Must be expanding
(b) Must be contracting
(c) Must be either expanding or contracting
(d) May be neither expanding nor contracting
Answer: (c)

42) Supernova explosions have no connection with _______.

( a) The formation of heavy elements
(b) Cosmic rays
(c) Pulsars
(d) Quasars
Answer: (d)

43) Current ideas suggest that what is responsible for the observed properties of a quasar is a massive ____.

(a) Neutron star
(b) Black hole
(c) Spiral galaxy
(d) Star cluster
Answer: (b)

44) The age of the universe is probably in the neighborhood of ______.

( a) 15 million years
(b) 4 ½ billion years
(c) 15 billion years
(d) 30 billion years
Answer: (c)

45) The term big bang refers to ___.

( a) the origin of the universe
(b) the ultimate fate of the universe
(c) a supernova explosion
(d) the formation of a quasar
Answer: (a)

46) The elements heavier than hydrogen and helium of which the planets are composed probably came from the __.
( a) Sun
(b) Debris of supernova explosions that occurred before the solar system came into being
(c) Big bang
(d) Big crunch
Answer: (b)

47) Today the universe apparently contains ____.

( a) Only matter
(b) Only antimatter
(c) Equal amounts of matter and antimatter
(d) Slightly more matter than antimatter
Answer: (a)

48) Radiation from the early history of the universe was Doppler-shifted by the expansion of the universe until today it is in the form of _______.

( a) X-rays
(b) Ultraviolet waves
(c) Infrared waves
(d) Radio waves
Answer: (d)

49) Present evidence suggests that most of the mass of the universe is in the form of ______.

( a) Dark matter
(b) Luminous matter
(c) Cosmic rays
(d) Black holes
Answer: (a)

50) It is likely that the planets, satellites, and other members of the solar system were formed ________.

(a) Together with the sun
(b) Later than the sun from material it ejected
(c) Later than the sun from material it captured from space
(d) Elsewhere and were captured by the sun
Answer: (a)

Alliteration – English sentences starts with the same letter

by

Alliteration is a term to describe a literary device in which a series of words begin with the same consonant sound. A classic example is: “She sells seashells by the sea-shore.” Another fan-favorite is: “Peter Piper picked a peck of pickled peppers.” Here is some Alliterations.

Absolutely. Assembling an appropriate answer appears achievable, assuming an articulate author appropriately adept at alliteration.

Behold, by being brave, but besides boldness by brainstorming before beginning, broadcasting brief blurbs becomes bizarre but basic babbling.

Continuing, casual crowd commenters can concur, collectively checking current compositional constraints controlling character choice, concerning certain crackpot creative chores, chiefly claiming common cunning’s compelled conclusion, comprising conjectured chore conquerability (circumstantially) carrying clear caveats cautioning care, considering calling colossal commitments complete cinches could convey controversial cool confidence.

Don’t dare doubt David’s diligence doing deeds demanding deft, devious design, dear discussion denizen, deeming dogged determination doesn’t darken David’s door; during diction’s driest drudgery, despite delightful daydreams delaying development, destiny’s death-defying daredevil detail deviser dodges despair, denying defeat, displaying devotion demonstrating dreary deliberation doubles daft drama’s devastating dynamic disposition, dovetailing directly.

English enthusiasts eagerly envision enhanced emotional elevation, exceeding even existing examples’ elicited elation, encountering each ensuing eccentric exercise, ergo everyone’s esteemed enlisted essayist (enchanted!) ensures each exquisite excerpt exhibits explosive expressive efficacy evincing either excruciating editing effort, extreme endurance, engineering excellence, etc., else elemental extemporaneous effervescence, entertaining enough except — explaining earnestly — entailing eventual emergency; essentially, endorsing ever-escalating elaborate experimentation encourages extravagant excesses, especially emphasizing expectations encompassing elusive execution extending established events — exclusively employing equal everyday emblems (E’s, e.g.) embodying each emblem ensemble’s earlier end (elsewhere enunciated easily) — evaluating endowing entirely equivalent eloquence eternally, envisaging electronic education’s emerging endeavor enjoying eight, eleven, even eighteen entries, exploits experts empirically estimate expending extra-Einstein egghead energy engendering environmentally evil, Earth-exposing exhaled exhaust emissions.

Five funny features feel fairly finished for forum fodder, foolish followers falsely fancy, for failing further focus fueling full foresight, fellow fiction fanciers frankly forget fundamental facts framing fruits from frenzied freelancing, for first fragments flowing from frantic freshman fingers frequently fall flat, forming forced, flawed fakeries feigning fluency, faded facsimiles fractionally fitting for fatuous Facebook flapdoodle, familiar formulaic fragments famously fouling friends’ feeds; fine, for furthermore, fascinatingly, first forays facing far-flung fringe frontiers, finding faith’s fortitude ferociously fighting formidable foes — fear, frustration, flaky functioning, foot fungus — forge foundations for future feats, figurative furniture for fortune’s foyer, faintly favoring fantastic fairytale fates, fervently foremost finally finishing forever.

Good grief, getting gobsmacked glimpsing great glory gushing goofy gibberish generates growing gaiety, gladdening geekery’s gracious groupie (greetings), generally greasing God’s genetically ghostwritten gearbox governing giddiness gainsaying glumness: graphically, guts, glands — generously, gantries guiding glowing glee grains granting genuine giggles, graceful gadgets guarding geniality’s green garden gate; gobbledygook, gentle guy/girl gathering: grin given glimmering gold; gasp gratuitously guzzling glittery glamor (greedily, gilded gramophones gurgling garbled Gangnam getting groovy gyrating go-go gals gamely gesturing galloping); groan giant, gutteral groans given glaringly glib games, gross grammatical goulash, gloppy gumbo grouping gimmicks galore: gawkish gymnasts gliding gallantly, gingerly grasping gigantic grotesque gorillas; guileless genius guaranteeing gullible gala-goers grimy garbage garnering ghastly grapevine gossip (galling grieving geriatrics gripping geraniums gentrifying grandpa’s grave); ghoulish gory galleries giving grimacing guests grisly gas, grunting gruffly: go gag gobbling grass, goddamn gibbon, get gone guilty gent, git!

Huge hits have historically harbored hidden hazards, hysterical hordes hardly heeding how habitually heaping honors hyping his Holiness, Harry Harangue-Hatcher, hollering, “Hip hip, hooray! Hail Hypertext Highway’s happening hack!” heavily heightens his hedonism, hubris, head hugeness — harsh harbingers hurling humanity’s hardiest hero hellward, hereafter helming his hapless human husk haunting Hades’s hallmark hot haze, heckling Halloween’s hideous headless horseman (hefting his hollow head), harassing Hitler’s hired Holocaust henchmen, hassling ham-handed helicopter handlers — hopefully, hypothetically, having hardcore horizontal hugs holding his horny, high-heeled hourglass honey (he handily helped hang her hemp Hawaiian hammock), heartland’s “happy” housewife humbling hotel heiress Hilton, heinously having hated her husband’s horsey hee-haw “hello,” his hundred horrible hay howls hammering her homicidal; however, have heart, huddled hint hobbyists, hearkening how hallowed hieroglyphs hurtling hence harmonize hypnotically, heaven’s harps highlighting how hyperactive hippocampus hockey heaves hilarious harvested hash — healthy herbs healing hungry humor hankerings.

It is intriguing, if I innocently introspect, inquiring into industriousness, imagining isolating its ingredients, i.e. internal impetuses instrumental in inspiring indefinite intransigence in inking inane, ignoble illustrations (illuminating immoderate idiom’s indomitable impetuosity, its irrepressible impishness, in infinite iterations), intently ignoring indolent inclinations inducing interest in idly inspecting Internet idiocy instead — insouciantly ingesting incessant immature innuendos insulting impromptu interactive images, inevitably imbibing insipid informational items interpreting important issues incorrectly; if indeed impressive inner influences inhere in intrepidly indulging improbable initiatives, I informally identify: idiosyncratic innate impulses involving inflexible ideals; incurable insomnia; iron intestinal integrity; insufficiently inebriated introversion; indubitably, intellectual imperative imitating insecure icicles in impaling indifferent inactivity.

Jumping Jehoshaphat, J’s jaunty jangle jovially jolts jaded jargon junkies, justifying judicious juggling joining jocose journal jottings; judging Job’s Judaic journey jejune, jamming jousts (jointly, jabs) jeopardizing joyful June/July junctures — just jubilate, juvenilely jacking jumbo Jamba Juice jugs joking jumbled jingles jollify jail’s jeering junior janitors.

Knucklehead knaves karate-kicking King Kong’s kidneys kneel, kindred kibitzers, keenly knowing kempt knights knead keyboards, knitting kooky keynotes — kerosene kinetically kindling kinky kittens’ kisses, kiddingly kidnapping Kim Kardashian’s kingdom keys, knotting klutzy Kanye’s knickers; knappish killjoys, kowtow: kryptonite k-key knacks keep knowledge-knockers knackered.

Look lively, listless language lovers, learning lame lulls lack lasting legitimacy lessening lofty literature’s lumbering, lurching locomotion; leaving Local Lunatic Linguist listing letters, let’s lazily luxuriate, losing life’s latest little lingering laments like landlords limit lawless louts’ leases, least-leniently letting long-lost loathesome lecturers lambaste liberated leaders, lucidly laughing: Listen — lending lighthearted levity lubricates lavish labor, launching latent legato lyrics like larynx-lodged lasagna; likewise, licking lollipops; looping leashes loosely; lustily locking lips; lemon-lime lozenges; large-lidded lunch liquids; lastly, low light levels limning luscious landscapes.

Andrew asked Annabel about Alcoholic’s Anonymous. But because babes buy bubbly beverages, Bel bickered. Can’t couples communicate? Duh! Drunk dumb-dumbs debate. Everyone enjoys elocution. Flibbertigibbets flatter fellas; fellas fraternize. God, gabbers get grating! However, handsome hombres have healthy habits. I include Ignatz. Jesus! Jennifer justifies jealous jeering. Kindness keeps kin kinda kinky. Luckily, lovers likely love licking luscious legs. Meanwhile, Marcus marvelously mangles meaning. No! Neither nuance nor novelty negates negativity. Only Ontology, Orientalism, or Orthography obviates overdoing Occultism. Perhaps purple prose permeates popular periodicals. Quite! Quit quibbling! Quixotically queer queens quip quietly. Right? Radical reactionaries really resent redundancies. Really, really, really! So, stay silently stealthy. The timidity towards Teutonic tonic turns technically terrific talk to tittle-tattle. Understand? Unlikely. Unless users utilize unusual unicode. Very vexing! Well, we will wait without worrying, won’t we? What words will we write? “Xu”? “Xi”? “Xis”? “Xyst?” Yes! You yammering yokels yack, yack, yack. Yawn! Zzzzzzzzzzzzzzzz …