Question
Secondary/Shear waves that shake back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel, cannot travel through a liquid (4.5km/s upper mantle, 3.5km/s crust)
Answer
S Wave
1. Which disaster are most likely to extinguish the human race? – Volcanoes and extraterrestrial impacts
2. What’s the smallest asteroid or comet that could cause devastating effects for humanity? – 1 kilometer wide – the equivalent of about a 10-minute walk
3. What is the biggest coronal mass ejections (CME) on record to hit Earth? – The arrington Event
4. What is the chance that a Carrington-like storm will hit in the next ten years? – 12 %
5. Which of these events may have been responsible for nearly wiping out the human race? – A supervolcano
6. How far does a supervolcano’s incineration zone extend? – 100 Kilometers
7. Where is the world’s biggest earthquake machine located? – Miki, Japan
8. What, according to some scientists, is the ideal post apocalyptic food? – Mushrooms
9. At No. 1 on the list, _____ are the most common natural disaster. – Floods
10. Landslides, tsunamis and avalanches can all be caused by what other natural disaster? –Earthquakes
11. Which volcanic feature is the deadliest? – The flow of ash, rock and gasses moving down a volcano’s side
12. The deadliest natural disaster in U.S. history was a _____ that hit Galveston, TX in 1900, killing about 7,000 people. – Hurricane
13. What makes a tornado dark colored? – The dirt and debris it sucks up
14. One of America’s worst natural disasters occurred in 1980, when a _____ damaged much
of the southern U.S. – Heat Wave
15. Below average rainfall for a prolonged period of time is called – Drought
16. What is a Tsunami? – A large wave usually formed by undersea earthquakes and landslides.
17. A sudden movement in the earth’s crust caused by movements of tectonic plates is called? – An earthquake
18. What is a natural disaster? – When a natural hazard impacts on the community causing destruction of property and loss of life.
19. The phenomenon of unusually cool ocean currents off the coast of Australia is called – El Nino
20. The social impacts of natural hazards include: – Loss of income to people or damage to an industry, illnesses cause by hazard, no form of communication
21. Natural Hazards can be separated into _________ and ________ categories. – Economic Impacts and Environmental Impacts
22. Indicates the severity of an earthquake in terms of the damage that it inflicts on structures and people – Intensity Scale
23. Boundary where plates are moving towards each other – Convergent
24. A fan shaped deposit of sand and gravel at the mouth of a mountain canyon where the stream gradient flattens at main valley floor – Alluvial Fan
25. A ground depression caused by collapse into an underground cavern – Sinkhole
26. Volcanic dome composed of rhyolite and rhyodacite – Rhyolite Dome
27. Form as sediment is deposited in the slower waters on the inside of the meander bends – Point bar
28. The number peaks per second – Frequency
29. Record local and very strong earthquakes – Strong-motion Seismograph
30. A measure of the total energy expended during an earthquake; depends on its seismic moment determined by: rock shear strength, area of rock, average slip distance offset across the – Moment Magnitude
31. A landslide in which the mass rotates as it slides on a basal slip surface – Rotational Slide
32. Blocky basalt lava with a ragged clinkery surface – Aa Flow
33. Karst-like landscape in permafrost terrain caused by melting of thermofrost under increasing temperatures – Thermokarst
34. Flat-topped volcano formed by an eruption under a glacier – Tuya
35. Molten rock – Magma
36. Record both local and distant earthquakes; but cannot accurately measure strong earthquakes in the direct vicinity – Broadband Seismograph
37. A slurry of rock, sand, water flowing downslope; water usually makes up less than half of the flow volume –Debris Flow
38. Ice that crystallizes in pores between grains of sediment – Interstitial Ice
39. Developed 1953l based on maximum amplitude of earthquake waves recorded on a Wood Anderson Seismograph – Richter Magnitude Scale
40. The total area inundated by the tsunami – Run-out distance
41. The height to which a tsunami wave rushes up onshore – Run-up height
42. Rigid outer rind of Earth approximately 60-100km thick – Lithosphere
43. Maximum angle of which sediment particles can stand without falling (dependent on grain size, grain angularity, moisture content) – Critical Angle of Repose
44. Heavier sediment in a stream that is moved along the stream bed rather than in suspension – Bedload
45. Energy level between Richter Scale Units differs by ______ times – 31.5
46. A flow of mud, rock, and water dominated by clay-sized particles – Mud Flow
47. Rapid movement of land, ranging from cm/hr to m/s of material disappearing almost instantaneously – Collapse
48. Relatively flat lowland that borders a river usually dry but subject to flooding – Floodplain
49. Water saturated sediment jostled by an earthquake rearrange themselves into a closer packing arragement – Liquefaction
50. Where the earthquake actually happens in the earth’s crust, where energy is radiating out from all directions – Focus
51. A circular or oval feature resulting from the dissolution of rock – Doline
52. Natural & Human Created Hazard like floods, droughts, wildland fires, weather phenomena, landslides are called – Hydrometeorological Hazards
53. Type of collision forms continent volcanic arc of stratovolcanoes – Ocean-Continent
54. Basalt lava with a ropy or smooth top – Pahoehoe Flow
55. Magma that flows out onto the ground surface – Lava
56. Fragmental material blown out of a volcano (ex. tephra, cinders, and bombs) – Pyroclastic
57. A particle of volcanic ash between 2mm and 6mm across – Lapilli
58. Type of collision that forms oceanic island arc of basaltic volcanoes – Ocean-Ocean
59. Point where boundaries of 3 plates meet – Triple Junction
60. Natural Hazards like Earthquakes, Tsunami, Volcanic Eruptions, Asteroid/Comet Impacts, Landslides are called – Geophysical Hazard
61. Rapid discharge of water from an ice-dammed lake, typically resulting from a volcanic eruption – Jokulhlaup
62. Tsunami that strikes area adjacent to its point of origin – Near Field Tsunami
63. A broad expanse of basalt lava that cooled to fill in low-lying areas of the landscape – Flood Basalt
64. An extremely large basalt-lava volcano, gently sloping sides – Shield Volcano
65. Where the earthquake actually appears on the earth’s surface, sometimes there is a rupture at that point – Epicentre
66. Downslope creep driven by sequential freezing and thawing – Gelifluction
67. A huge collapse depression at the Earth’s surface that sank into a near-surface magma chamber during eruption of the magma – Resurgent Caldera
68. The length of a fault broken during an earthquake – Surface Rupture Length
69. Developed in 1902 by Giuseppe Mercalli – Mercalli Intensity Scale
70. Measure earthquakes quantitatively, independent of location and assigns a magnitude value based on energy released – Magnitude Scale
71. Involves the movement of a slab of rock, debris, or cohesive mud as a single unit – Slide
72. The time between seismic waves – Period
73. Extremely rapid downslope movement of large volumes of rock and debris – Sturzstrom
74. Secondary/Shear waves that shake back and forth perpendicular to the direction of wave travel, cannot travel through a liquid (4.5km/s upper mantle, 3.5km/s crust) – S Wave
75. Used to measure earthquakes – Seismograph
76. The potential degree to which an individual or community could be affected by a natural hazard – Sensitivity
77. Records distant earthquakes – Long-period Seismograph
78. A river characterized by multiple, frequency shifting channels – Braided River
79. An ice jam initiated by rpaid change in temperature – Thermal Ice Jam
80. Extremely slow downslope flow of sediment on the surface – Creep
81. Slope of the river channel; typically decreases downstream – Gradient
82. A mudflow associated with volcanic action or involving volcanic materials – Lahar
83. Component of stress perpendicular to the earth’s planar surface (force keeping the boulder/grain from moving) – Normal Stress
84. A flow involving movement of broken rock, with little sand or mud, and particle-particle contact; usually developed in gravel or sand – Grain Flow
85. A mass of cold, solid rock ejected from a volcano – Block
86. Fine materials (dust, ash, and cinders) produced by volcanic action – Tephra
87. An elevation that a stream cannot erode past, controlled by level of the body of water which the stream discharges into – Base Level
88. A landslide that moves along a regular sloping planar surface – Translational Slide
89. Mineral composed of potassium chloride, a salt used in manufacturing fertilizer – Sylvite
90. Mineral or rock composed of sodium chloride; susceptible to dissolution – Halite
91. An event involving a significant number of people and/or significant economic damage – Disaster
92. The deepest parts of the channel along the length of the stream bed – Thalweg
93. Lenses of pure ice developed in permafrost sediment – Segregated Ice
94. An abnormally long wavelength wave produced by sudden displacement of water – Tsunami
95. Topographic line or boundary separating watersheds – Drainage Divide
96. Formed on the ceiling of a cavern when water percolates through fractures in limestone – Stalactite
97. A large steep-sided volcano consisting of layers of ash, fragmental debris and lava – Stratovolcanoes
98. The amount the fault or ridge moves away from its point of origin (aka displacement) – Offset
99. A mass of liquid of partially solidified rock that is ejected from a volcano – Bomb
100. Relatively slow movement of land, typically at rates of cm/yr – Subsidence
100 MCQs About Natural Disasters Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AQuestion
American Paul Theroux wrote novels and about what else?
Answer
Travel
American Paul Theroux wrote novels and about what else? Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AQuestion
French revolution what did the prisoners travel to the guillotine in?
Answer
Tumbrels
French revolution what did the prisoners travel to the guillotine in? Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&AClick HERE for previous questions.
An example of a shield volcano is
(a) Mount Fuji
(b) Mount Pinatubo
(c) Puy de Dome
(d) Mauna Loa
Answer: (d)
Mauna Loa is one of five volcanoes that form the Island of Hawaii in the U.S. state of Hawaii in the Pacific Ocean.Mauna Loa is a shield volcano that has erupted some three dozen times since its first well-documented eruption in 1843
Volcanoes that have erupted in historic times and are still likely to erupt, are known as
(a) Active volcanoes
(b) Dormant volcanoes
(c) Extinct volcanoes
(d) Instinct volcanoes
Answer: (b)
Top of magma is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Pipe
(d) Crater
Answer: (d)
A volcanic crater is a roughly circular depression in the ground caused by volcanic activity. It is typically a bowl-shaped feature within which occurs a vent or vents
Volcano that forms from column of magma is called a/an
(a) underwater volcano
(b) convergent volcano
(c) divergent volcano
(d) hot spot volcano
Answer: (d)
Reference to how thick a liquid is known as
(a) density
(b) conductivity
(c) viscosity
(d) volatility
Answer: (c)
Fluidity of lava is determined by amount of
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) nickel
(d) silica
Answer: (d)
A flash flood is a flood that:
(a) is caused by heavy rain rather than from the flooding of a river
(b) occurs in urban areas
(c) occurs suddenly and unexpectedly and for a short duration
(d) is caused by the blocking of drains.
Answer: (c)
Flash floods are defined by the speed of flooding, not the source or location of flooding. While flash floods are often caused by heavy rainfall, they can also result from other events, such as drain blockages and bursts or the flooding of a river.
Monsoon is caused by: (CSS-2009)
(a) Seasonal reversal of winds
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Movement of clouds
(d) Rise in temperature
(e) Rain forests
Answer: (a)
The monsoon, which is essentially the seasonal reversal in wind direction, causes most of the rainfall received in Pakistan and some other parts of the world. The primary cause of monsoons is the difference between annual temperature trends over land and sea. The apparent position of the Sun with reference to the Earth oscillates from the Tropic of Cancer to the Tropic of Capricorn. Thus the low pressure region created by solar heating also changes latitude. The northeast and southeast trade winds converge in this low pressure zone, which is also known as the Intertropical Convergence Zone or ITCZ. This low pressure regions sees continuous rise of moist wind from the sea surface to the upper layers of the atmosphere, where the cooling means the air can no longer hold so much moisture resulting in precipitation. The rainy seasons of East Asia, sub-Saharan Africa, Australia and the southern parts of North America coincide with the shift of ITCZ towards these regions.
A flood can vary in:
(a) size
(b) speed of water flow
(c) duration
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size, duration and water flow speed of floods can vary. The volume, rate of rise and areal extent (i.e. the total area under flood waters) of flooding can also vary.
When a river’s water level reaches 10 meters, this means that:
(a) the water level is 10 meters above an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(b) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level
(c) the water level is 10 meters above mean sea level or an arbitrary ‘zero’ level
(d) it will flood.
Answer: (c)
River height is the level of water in a river as measured by a river gauging station and is expressed in meters above either the Australian Height Datum (i.e. mean sea level) or an alternative arbitrary ‘zero’ level, depending on the location.
The size of a flood is measured by:
(a) the rate of flow of water in a waterway or river
(b) the level of water in a waterway or river
(c) a river gauging station
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
The size of a flood can be measured by the highest level that water in a waterway reaches, referred to as the ‘peak water level’ or ‘flood peak’. It can also be measured by the maximum water flow rate in a waterway, referred to as the ‘peak flow rate’ or ‘peak water flow’. Each of these variables can be measured using a river gauging station.
Which of the following is associated with a La Niña event?
(a) The Southern Oscillation Index (SOI) is strongly negative.
(b) The ocean surface off the coast of South America is warmer than usual.
(c) There is an increased chance of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (c)
In a La Niña event, the equatorial ocean surface off the coast of South America is abnormally cool, and the SOI is strongly positive. Trade winds blow strongly across the warm Pacific, picking up plenty of moisture and increasing the likelihood of above average rainfall in eastern Australia.
Which of the following potentially affects the size of a flood?
(a) bridges and other structures in waterways
(b) the size and windiness of a river
(c) vegetation in and around a river
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Many factors can affect the size of a flood, including rainfall intensity, weather conditions prior to a rainfall event, tidal and storm surges, dams and other man-made and natural water storages, catchment size and shape, soil types in a catchment, vegetation in and around a waterway, the size and windiness of a waterway, levees, bridges and other structures in waterways and catchments, and urbanization.
Seasons are generated by (CSS-2012)
(a) The movement of sun around the Milky Way
(b) The movement of the earth around the sun
(c) Relativistic Quantum
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
The 2010 floods had cost the Pakistan’s economy around
(a) $17b
(b) $11b
(c) $10b
(d) $13b
Answer: (c)
It estimates that just a little less than 1pc of Pakistan’s GDP is exposed to river floods every year. It is ranked 16th by the WRI on the list of the top 20 countries with the highest GDP exposure to river floods.
The World Resources Institute (WRI) says Pakistan falls 5th on the list of top 15 countries that account for 80pc of the population exposed to river-flood risk worldwide.
In Pakistan, the most expensive natural disaster is:
(a) Drought
(b) Floods
(c) Bushfires
(d) Cyclones.
Answer: (b)
Pakistan faces a major financing challenge arising from natural catastrophes, with flooding causing an estimated annual economic impact of between three and four per cent of the federal budget,” adds the report. It estimates the annual economic impact of flooding at between $1.2bn and $1.8bn, or 0.5-0.8pc of GDP.
Which of the following is an environmental consequence of floods?
(a) dispersal of weed species
(b) erosion of soil
(c) release of pollutants into waterways
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Floods can have negative environmental consequences, such as soil erosion, release of pollutants and excess sediments and nutrients into waterways and the ocean, dispersal of weed species, and negative impacts on fish and other aquatic life. Floods can also have positive environmental consequences, such as recharging groundwater systems, filling wetlands, moving useful nutrients around the landscape, and triggering breeding events (for example, of water birds).
Which of the following is used to estimate which areas will be inundated during a flood, based on river height information?
(a) satellite and radar images
(b) flood maps / floodplain hydraulic models
(c) river gauging stations
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Floodplain hydraulic models and flood maps are used to estimate which areas will be inundated based on river height information. Satellite and radar images, rain gauges and river gauging stations are used to estimate river heights.
Which of the following statements is false?
(a) Weather forecasts for a small region are more accurate than those for a large region.
(b) Weather forecasts are more accurate in Melbourne than in Darwin.
(c) Forecasts of temperature are more accurate than forecasts of rainfall.
(d) All of the above.
Answer: (a)
The accuracy of weather forecasts varies depending on lead time, the size of the region of interest, the weather variable being forecast, and the latitude of the region. Generally, temperature forecasts are more accurate than rainfall forecasts; the mid-latitudes are easier to forecast than the tropics; and it is generally easier to forecast rainfall over a large area (for example, a large catchment) than local rainfall (for example, a reservoir).
Which of the following is true? Flood warnings:
(a) should not be released until the information is certain
(b) should indicate what the threat is, what
(c) action should be taken, by whom and when
(d) are best if they come from a single source
(e) all of the above.
Answer: (b)
Flood warnings should provide information on what the threat is, what action should be taken, by whom and when. While it is desirable for flood warnings to be accurate, warnings are predictions about the future, so there is inevitably some uncertainty. Accuracy needs to be balanced with timeliness, to allow enough time for appropriate action. Warnings are most likely to reach different audiences and to be heeded if they come from multiple trusted sources.
Flood risk refers to:
(a) the chance of a flood occurring
(b) the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters if a flood occurs
(c) the vulnerability of people and properties that are exposed to floodwaters
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk includes both the chance (or probability) of a flood occurring, and the consequences if a flood occurs. The consequences of a flood are in turn affected by the number of people and properties exposed to floodwaters for a flood of a particular size, and the vulnerability of those people and properties. For example, a river might burst its banks regularly, but if this flooding occurs in an isolated area where there are no people or infrastructure, then the risk is low. Similarly, a river might flood very rarely, but if many people and properties are located near this river and they live in dwellings that are vulnerable to water damage, then the flood risk will be greater.
Which of the following can reduce the risk of flooding?
(a) zonings and building regulations for new developments
(b) dams, detention basins and levees
(c) flood awareness and education programs
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
Flood risk in new developments can be reduced by restricting the location of development (zonings) and placing controls (regulations) on development. In existing developed areas, risk can be reduced by modifying flood behaviour (for example, through dams, detention basins, levees, waterway modifications), property modification measures (for example, land filling, flood proofing, house raising, removing developments), and response modification measures (for example, upgrading flood evacuation routes, flood warnings, flood evacuation planning, flood education programs).
The Probable Maximum Flood is:
(a) an estimation of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location
(b) the maximum flood experienced in the last 100 years
(c) the maximum flood experienced in the last 200 years
(d) the maximum flood experienced since flood records have existed.
Answer: (d)
The Probable Maximum Flood (PMF) is an estimate of the largest possible flood that could occur at a particular location, under the most severe meteorological and hydrological conditions as they are currently understood.
In the future, which of the following is expected to increase the risk of flooding?
(a) population growth
(b) urbanization
(c) climate change
(d) all of the above.
Answer: (d)
In the future, climate change is likely to result in an increased chance of flash floods and coastal inundation. Australia’s growing population and urbanization are likely to place increased pressure on our waterways and to increase the chance of flooding in cities and the number of properties and people exposed to floodwaters.
In the future, which of the following is unlikely?
(a) There will be an increased chance of flash flooding and coastal inundation.
(b) Flood risk will increase due to population growth and urbanization.
(c) Improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies will reduce the impacts of floods.
(d) We will be able to eliminate the risk of flooding.
Answer: (d)
It is not possible to eliminate the risk of flooding. Indeed, it is likely that flood risk will increase in the future due to climate change, population growth and urbanization. However, we can better manage flood risk through improvements in flood forecasting and warning technologies, as well as improved land use planning, floodplain management and integrated water management.
Higher level of floods and droughts are led by
(a) sand storms
(b) lower precipitation
(c) higher precipitation
(d) none of the above
Answer: (c)
Approximately how fast do tsunami waves travel in the open ocean?
(a) 100 km/hour
(b) 1600 km/hour
(c) 200 km/hour
(d) 400 km/hour
(e) 800 km/hour
Answer: (e)
Tsunami waves travel between 500 and 950 km/hour.
What can cause a tsunami?
(a) Landslide
(b) Underwater earthquake
(c) Volcanic eruption
(d) All of the above
Tsunamis are usually generated by undersea earthquakes at tectonic plate boundaries, but they can also be triggered by underwater landslides, volcanic eruptions, or even a giant meteor impact with the ocean.
Do all undersea earthquakes trigger a tsunami?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
An undersea earthquake creates a tsunami only if it is of sufficient force and there is a violent enough movement of the seafloor to displace a massive amount of water.
What does the word “tsunami” mean in Japanese?
(a) Tidal wave
(b) Harbor wave
(c) Killer wave
(d) Century wave
Answer: (b)
English word “tsunami” comes from the Japanese term for “harbor wave.” Tsunamis are not the same things as tidal waves and actually consist of a series of waves.
Witnesses have said that an approaching tsunami sounds like what?
(a) Firecrackers exploding
(b) A freight train
(c) Ice cracking
(d) Nothing—there is absolute silence
Answer: (b)
Many witnesses have described the sound of an approaching tsunami as being similar to a freight train’s.
What is the most active tsunami area?
(a) Pacific Ocean
(b) Caribbean Sea
(c) Indian Ocean
(d) North Atlantic Ocean
Answer: (a)
Most tsunamis, about 80 percent, happen within the Pacific Ocean’s Ring of Fire, a geologically active area where tectonic shifts make volcanoes and earthquakes common.
What is the deadliest tsunami ever recorded?
(a) The 1782 South China Sea tsunami
(b) The 1868 northern Chile tsunami
(c) The 1883 South Java Sea tsunami
(d) The 2004 Indian Ocean tsunami
Answer: (d)
In 2004 more than 200,000 people—the most ever recorded—died in an Indian Ocean tsunami that was triggered by an earthquake off Sumatra, Indonesia.
How fast can a tsunami travel?
(a) Up to 100 miles an hour (160 kilometers an hour)
(b) Up to 200 miles an hour (320 kilometers an hour)
(c) Up to 500 miles an hour (800 kilometers an hour
(d.) Up to 1,000 miles an hour (1,600 kilometers an hour)
Answer: (c)
Tsunamis race across the sea at up to 500 miles (805 kilometers) an hour—about as fast as a jet airplane. At that pace they can cross the entire expanse of the Pacific Ocean in less than a day.
Can you detect a tsunami in the open ocean?
(a) Yes
(b) No
Answer: (b)
No. In the open ocean, the wave length of a tsunami is hundreds of miles long and only a few feet high. Boaters are safer out at sea during a tsunami than close to shore or tied up at port.
Where was the largest tsunami in history recorded?
(a) India
(b) Philippines
(c) Chile
(d) Japan
Answer: (d)
In 1971 a wall of water 278 feet (84.7 meters) high surged past Ishigaki Island, Japan. It moved a 750-block of coral 1.5 miles (2.4 kilometers) closer to shore but did little other damage.
What is frequently a warning sign of an impending tsunami?
(a) Winds suddenly change direction
(b) The sky suddenly clears
(c) Seawater suddenly retreats from the shore
(d) All of the above
Answer: (c)
If the tsunami’s trough reaches shore first, it sucks the water seaward, exposing the seafloor suddenly. The wave’s crest usually hits shore about five minutes later. Recognizing this phenomenon—and getting to higher ground immediately—can save lives.
Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
(a) Wind
(b) Water
(c) Vegetation
(d) Coal and minerals
Answer: (d)
Which of the following is a renewable resource?
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Flora and fauna
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)
_____ of stratosphere provides protection to our life.
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Ozone
(d) Argon
Answer: 3
The life supporting gases such as O2, CO2 and N2 are chiefly concentrated in the_______.
(a) Troposphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Homosphere
(d) Stratosphere
Answer: (a)
Which of the following soil is the best for plant growth?
(a) Sandy soil
(b) Clay
(c) Gravel
(d) Loamy soil
Answer: (d)
Both power and manure are provided by _______.
(a) Thermal plants
(b) Nuclear plants
(c) Biogas plants
(d) Hydroelectric plants
Answer: (c)
In the atmosphere, the layer above the troposphere is _____.
(a) Stratosphere
(b) Exosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
Answer: (a)
______ is the major raw material for biogas.
(a) Plant leaves
(b) Cow dung
(c) Mud
(d) Grass
Answer: (b)
A biosphere reserve conserves and preserves_______.
(a) Wild animals
(b) Wild land
(c) Natural vegetation
(d) All the above
Answer: (d)
Atomic energy is obtained by using ores of_______.
(a) Copper
(b) Uranium
Answer: (b)
Sanctuaries are established to_______.
(a) Rear animals for milk
(b) Entrap animals
(c) Protect animals
(d) None of the above
Answer: (c)
An animal sanctuary is a facility where animals are brought to live and be protected for the rest of their lives. Unlike animal shelters, sanctuaries do not seek to place animals with individuals or groups, instead maintaining each animal until his or her natural death. At present there are 99 Wildlife Sanctuaries in Pakistan
The death of the last individual of a species is called_______.
(a) Extinction
(b) Clad
(c) Neither (a) nor (b)
(d) Species diversity
Answer: (a)
In biology and ecology, extinction is the end of an organism or of a group of organisms (taxon), normally a species. The moment of extinction is generally considered to be the death of the last individual of the species, although the capacity to breed and recover may have been lost before this point.
Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(a) Natural gas
(b) Petrol
(c) Coal
(d) Uranium
Answer: (d)
Fossil fuels are sources of energy that have developed within the earth over millions of years. Because fossil fuels – oil, natural gas, and coal – take so long to form, they are considered nonrenewable
Biogas generation is mainly based on the principle of_______.
(a) Fermentation
(b) Degradation
(c) Putrification
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: (a)
The biogas plant operating on the principle of a wet anaerobic fermentation process was selected for the determination of the composition of in-put raw material which is determinative for the final biogas quality. The biogas plant is designed as an accumulation through-flow device. The biogas production takes place during the wet fermentation process in the mesophile operation (average temperature 40°C). The produced biogas is used in a cogeneration unit. The biogas plant operates in automatic mode.
Floods can be prevented by_______.
(a) Afforestation
(b) Cutting the forests
(c) Tilling the land
(d) Removing the top soil
Answer: (a)
Afforestation is the establishment of a forest or stand of trees in an area where there was no forest. Reforestation is the reestablishment of forest cover, either naturally (by natural seeding, coppice, or root suckers) or artificially (by direct seeding or planting).
Afforestation Trees are planted near to the river. This means greater interception of rainwater and lower river discharge. This is a relatively low cost option, which enhances the environmental quality of the drainage basin.
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General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A1) What is the point of origin of an earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (b)
The exact point where the earthquake actually starts deep inside the earth’s crust (the point of origin) is called the focus, or hypocenter.
2) What is the point on the surface nearest the earthquake?
(a) Epicenter
(b) Focus
(c) Foreshock
(d) Scarp
(e) Seismograph
Answer: (a)
The epicenter is the point on the earth’s surface vertically above the hypocenter (or focus), point in the crust where a seismic rupture begins
3) Places experiencing equal impact of an earthquake are called (CSS-2012)
(a) Snowlines
(b) seismic belts
(c) Seismic lines
(d) None of these
Answer: (c)
4) Where do most earthquakes occur?
(a) Along dikes
(b) Along faults
(c) Along folds
(d) Along joints
(e) Along unconformities
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes can also occur far from the edges of plates, along faults. Faults are cracks in the earth where sections of a plate (or two plates) are moving in different directions. Faults are caused by all that bumping and sliding the plates do. They are more common near the edges of the plates.
5) What is the standardized distance from an earthquake epicenter for measuring Richter magnitudes?
(a) 0 km
(b) 10 km
(c) 100 km
(d) 500 km
(e) 1000 km
Answer: (c)
Richter established 100 km as the standard distance from an earthquake epicenter to measure Richter magnitude with a Wood-Anderson seismograph.
6) What was the magnitude of the Earthquake that shook Northern Pakistan and Azad Kashmir on October, 8, 2005? (CSS-2006)
(a) 5.7
(b) 7.5
(c) 7.6
(d) None of these.
Answer: (d)
A major earthquake shook Pakistan on Saturday, October 8, 2005, at 8:50 a.m. The epicenter of this magnitude 7.6 quake was about 65 miles north-northeast of Islamabad, the country’s capital. At least 86,000 people were killed, more than 69,000 were injured, and extensive damage resulted in northern Pakistan. The heaviest damage occurred in the Muzaffarabad area of Kashmir.
7) In what country did the highest magnitude earthquake ever measured take place?
(a) Chile
(b) Pakistan
(c) Japan
(d) Afghanistan
(e) United States
Answer: (a)
The Chilean earthquake of 1960 is the most powerful ever recorded at 8.6 on the Richter scale or 9.5 on the moment magnitude scale.
8) What is the immediate energy source for earthquakes?
(a) Stored elastic energy in bent rock
(b) Stored elastic energy in compressed rock
(c) Stored heat energy from the earth’s interior
(d) Stored heat energy from the sun
Answer: (a)
Sudden elastic rebound of bent rock that has reached the breaking point is what causes nearly all earthquakes
9) What is the strongest magnitude earthquake ever measured on the Richter scale?
(a) 5.5
(b) 6.3
(c) 6.8
(d) 7.5
(e) 8.6
Answer: (e)
Several earthquakes have been measured with a magnitude close to 8.6 on the Richter scale, but none higher.
10) Which region of the earth has the most frequent earthquakes?
(a) Antarctic region
(b) Arctic region
(c) Atlantic region
(d) Indian region
(e) Pacific region
Answer: (e)
The Pacific region has the greatest number of earthquakes because this is where most of the earth’s convergent plate boundaries lie.
11) Japan is called: (CSS-2008)
(a) Land of earthquakes
(b) Land of rising sun
(c) Land of rivers
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
12) How does shaking ground cause soft sediment to liquify?
(a) It breaks the sediment particles into smaller pieces
(b) It evaporates water in the pores of the sediment
(c) It makes sediment particles fit more tightly together
(d) It melts the sediment
(e) It melts water in the pores of the sediment
Answer: (c)
Shaking ground helps particles to settle more tightly together, thus reducing interstitial space and releasing pore water.
13) Which of the following is not associated with earthquake destruction?
(a) Fires
(b) High winds
(c) Mass wasting
(d) Trembling earth
(e) Tsunamis
Answer: (b)
Earthquakes do not generate high winds.
14) Pakistan/Kashmir earthquake of October, 2005 was result of: (CSS-2006)
(a) Volcanic activity
(b) Tectonic dislocation
(c) Severe flooding
(d) None of these
Answer: (b)
15) Which waves are called shear waves because of the shear forces that they subject the rock to?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (b)
S-waves are also called shear waves because they subject the medium to shear forces, and they only pass through solids because only solids have elastic rebound to shear forces.
16) Which waves are called compression waves because they compress and extend the material they pass through?
(a) P-waves
(b) S-waves
(c) Surface waves
(d) All of the above
Answer: (a)
P-waves are also called compression waves because they compress and extend the medium.
17) In what order do earthquake waves arrive at seismic stations?
(a) P-waves, then S-waves, then surface waves
(a) S-waves, then P-waves, then surface waves
(b) S-waves, then surface waves, then P-waves
(c) Surface waves, then P-waves, then S-waves
(d) Surface waves, then S-waves, then P-waves
Answer: (a)
Primary and secondary waves are named after their arrival sequence.
18) Which of the following earthquake waves is first recorded on the Seismograph?
(a) P-waves
(b) Rayleigh waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Love waves
Answer: (a)
19) The Intensity scale of the earthquake is called?
(a) Mercalli scale
(b) Ritcher scale
(c) Number scale
(d) None of the above
Answer: (a)
20) The point where the energy is released during the earthquake is called?
(a) Epicentre
(b) Hypocentre
(c) Circumcentre
(d) None of the above
Answer: (b)
21) The type of plate- boundary interaction along the Himalayas is known as?
(a) Continent-continent convergence
(b) Divergent boundary
(c) Transform boundary
(d) Ocean-continent convergence
Answer: (a)
22) Which of the following describes the build up and release of stress during an earthquake?
(a) the Modified Mercalli Scale
(b) the elastic rebound theory
(c) the principle of superposition
(d) the travel time difference
Answer: (b)
23) Approximately what percentage of earthquakes occur at plate boundaries?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 90%
Answer: (d)
24) Where is the focus with respect to the epicenter?
(a) directly below the epicenter
(b) directly above the epicenter
(c) in the P wave shadow zone
(d) in the S wave shadow zone
Answer: (b)
25) Point A, where slip initiated during the earthquake, is called the ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (c)
26) Point B is called the earthquake ________.
(a) dip
(b) epicenter
(c) focus
(d) scarp
Answer: (b)
27) Point C is called the _________
(a) epicenter
(b) fault scarp
(c) Seismic wave
(d) Dip of the earthquake
Answer: (b)
A fault scarp is a small step or offset on the ground surface where one side of a fault has moved vertically with respect to the other. It is the topographic expression of faulting attributed to the displacement of the land surface by movement along faults.
28) What type of faulting is illustrated in this diagram?
(a) normal (b) Reverse
(c) Thrust (d) Abnormal
Answer: (a)
29) Which one of the following earthquake waves is more destructive?
(a) P-waves
(b) Surface waves
(c) S-waves
(d) Body waves
Answer: (b)
Earthquake waves can be divided into two types – body waves and surface waves. There are two types of body waves – P-wave and S-wave. The surface waves are more destructive as they displace rocks, and hence results in collapse of structures.
30) When a volcano ejects acid lava, eruption is usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)
31) In some eruptions, mudflows are forced over the
(a) Earth’s mantle
(b) Ocean bed
(c) Earth’s surface
(d) Earth’s core
Answer: (c)
32) Magma which is forced onto Earth’s surface is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (c)
33) An example of composite volcanoes is
(a) Mount Everest
(b) Puy de Dôme
(c) Mauna Loa
(d) Mount Merapi
Answer: (d)
34) ‘Flash-floods’ are associated with
(a) Thunderstorms
(b) Cyclonic storms
(c) Tsunami
(d) Tornado
Answer: (a)
A flash flood is a sudden flood event caused by a hydrologic response of the drainage basin. Flash floods are normally strongly localized and associated with extreme showers or thunderstorm activity, when high rates of precipitation occur in a short period of time.
35) During eruption, volcanic material is
(a) Blown to some meters
(b) Blown to many kilometers
(c) Blown to some inches
(d) Blown to some feet
Answer: (b)
36) When volcanos ejects basic lava, eruption is mainly
(a) Loud
(b) Violent
(c) Quite
(d) Hard
Answer: (c)
37) A reference to process by which materials such as magma and gases from inside Earth are forced onto Earth’s surface is
(a) Eruption
(b) Lava
(c) Volcanism
(d) Earthquake
Answer: (c)
38) Movement of crustal plates result in formation of
(a) a huge island
(b) Small volcanic islands
(c) a small island
(d) Huge volcanic islands
Answer: (b)
39) Ice can be changed to water by: (CSS-2011)
(a) Adding more water molecules
(b) Changing the motion of the water molecules
(c) Rearranging the atoms in water molecules
(d) Destroying the atoms in water molecules
(e) None of these
Answer: (b)
40) Composite volcanoes are made up of alternate layers of
(a) Ash and cinder only
(b) Dense lava and ash
(c) Viscous lava, ash and cinder
(d) pyroclastic lava, ash and cinder
Answer: (c)
41) Lava that contains high amounts of iron and magnesium, but low amount of silica is known as
(a) Acid Lava
(b) Basic Lava
(c) Composite Lava
(d) Component Lava
Answer: (b)
42) Number of classifications of volcanoes is
(a) three
(b) Six
(c) nine
(d) twelve
Answer: (a)
43) Acid lava is sticky or ‘viscous’ because it contains high amounts of
(a) Copper
(b) Iron
(c) nickel
(d) Silica
Answer: (d)
44) Eruptions from composite volcanoes are usually
(a) Light and less violent
(b) Soft and less violent
(c) Loud but less violent
(d) Loud and more violent
Answer: (d)
45) As volcano is carried along by plate, a new volcano is formed over the
(a) Ocean bed
(b) River bed
(c) Original hot spot
(d) Virtual hot spot
Answer: (c)
46) Cavity in Earth’s crust below vent that holds magma is known as
(a) Vent
(b) Cone
(c) Lava
(d) Magma Chamber
Answer: (d)
47) Most common type of volcano is the
(a) Acid Lava Volcano
(b) Basic Lava Volcano
(c) Composite Lava Volcano
(d) Component Volcano
Answer: (c)
48) Composite Lava Volcano is also known as
(a) Cinder volcano
(b) Ash volcano
(c) Pyroclastic volcano
(d) Stratovolcanoes
Answer: (d)
Composite volcanoes (also called stratovolcanoes) are much more explosive than shield volcanoes, the other important type of volcano.
49) Mid-Atlantic ridge is so tall that it actually rises above sea in many places forming
(a) Icy islands
(b) Ice lands
(c) Volcanic islands
(d) Rocky islands
Answer: (c)
50) Basic lava erupts out of volcano, throwing out mainly
(a) Ash
(b) Dust
(c) CO
(d) CO2
Answer: (a)
General Science & Ability MCQs (Natural Hazards and Disasters, Set-I) Read More »
General Knowledge, MCQs / Q&A
Converted from Henry William Elson’s
History of the United States of America
The MacMillan Company, New York, 1904
The following ten chapters from the original book by Henry William Elson were transcribed by Kathy Leigh. Thanks to her efforts they are offered here in e-text form for your enjoyment. Note that the table of contents below does not include original pagination or chapters that are not available online. Scholars should reference the text at any major library.
E-Text Table of Contents
Rule 1: When the suffix “full” is added to a word, one “ I” is removed.
Faith + full = faithful
Use + full= useful
Rule 2: If the word to which the suffix “full” is added ends in “ll”, one “I” is removed from the word also.
Skill +full = skilful
Will + full= wilful
Rule 3: Words of two or three syllables ending in single vowel + single consonant double the final consonant if the last syllable is stressed. Eg-
Permit + ed = permitted
Occur + ing =occurring
Control + ed =controlled
Begin + ing = beginning
Rule 4: Consonant ‘L’ is doubled in the words ending in single vowel + “I” before a suffix beginning with a vowel eg.
Signal + ing = signalling
Repel + ent = repellent
Quarrel + ed = quarrelled
Travel + er = traveller
Rule 5: Words ending in silent “e”, drop the “e” before a suffix beginning with a voweleg.
Hope + ing = hoping
Live + ed = lived
Drive + er = driver
Tire + ing= tiring
Rule 6: If the suffix begins with a consonant “e” is not dropped e.g
Hope + full = hopeful
Sincere + ly= sincerely
But,
True + ly = truly
Nine + th = ninth
Argue + ment = argument
Rule 7: A final “y” following a consonant changes to “i” before a suffix except “ing”. Eg.
Carry + ed = carried
Happy + ly = happily
Marry + age = marriage
Beauty + full = beautiful
But,
Marry + ing = marrying
Carry + ing = carrying
Rule 8: A final “y” following a vowel does not change before a suffix. Eg:
Obey + ed = obeyed
Play + er = player
Pray + ed= prayed
Rule 9: When the suffix “ous” is added to a word ending in “ce”, “e” is changed to “i”.
Space + ous= spacious
Vice + ous= vicious
Malice + ous = malicious
Grace + ous= gracious
Rule 10: When the suffix “ing” is added to a word ending in “ie”, “ie” is changed to “y”.
Lie + ing= lying
Die + ing = dying
Tie + ing= tying
10 Golden Rules on Spelling Correction in English Grammar Read More »
English, English Grammar